View Full Version : What is the deal with Laver?
07-09-2007, 08:31 AM
I heard something mentioned about him not being able to compete in the majors because he went pro. This was way before my time, but did he miss out on titles at his peak because of this?
07-09-2007, 08:34 AM
Back in the day professionals couldn't compete in GS because they were for amateurs only. This is before the Open Era when such rules changed but there were tournaments on the professional tour that were "equal" to the GS (i.e. Wimbledon Pro, US Pro, Wembley Pro and French Pro Championship). If you include those tournaments in addition to all the GS tournaments he won, Laver has more than Sampras. I think he has 18 or something like that. Maybe a more knowledgeable poster can confirm including a career grand slam in professional tournaments as well.
Yes, he definitely missed out on the opportunity to win more grand slams. He won all four GS titles in 1962 (and 17 more titles that year!) when those tournaments only accepted amateurs. Then he turned pro in 1963 and could not play the GS tournaments again until 1968 when the "open" era began. He promptly won all 4 GS titles again that year. So the speculation is that for five years in his prime, he was not allowed to compete in the grand slam events, and might have won a few more calendar slams. On the other side of the coin, he might never have won the slam in 1962 because most of the era's best players were off playing the pro circuit.
07-09-2007, 10:03 AM
Rod laver could have won 9 consecutive Wimbledon titles:
1963 turned pro, pros couldnt compete
1964 as above
1965 as above
1966 as above
1967 as above
1968 won- Open era, pros could compete
1969 won - as above
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