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View Full Version : Funny distinction, French only?


joeri888
06-02-2012, 04:56 AM
What I thought I noticed is that the french make a distinction between 40-40 and deuce. The first time it's 40-40, they call quarante-un (dunno what the un exactly is, but it means 'all', quinze-un, trente-un as well). The second time they say égalité. Is that just me?

And if I'm right, are they the only ones to do so? You never hear 40 all. What is the history behind the scores and are they more accurate or just wrong?

vive le beau jeu !
06-02-2012, 05:01 AM
it's quinze-A, trente-A and quarante-A. ;)

joeri888
06-02-2012, 05:04 AM
it's quinze-A, trente-A and quarante-A. ;)
Thanks, and what does the A stand for? What French word?

trenzterra
06-02-2012, 05:09 AM
Stands for 'All' I believe.

joeri888
06-02-2012, 05:10 AM
Stands for 'All' I believe.

All is 'tout' in French. Or would they mix the languages, wouldn't make much sense, would it?

The Bawss
06-02-2012, 05:13 AM
Égalité and quarante-A are equivalent although their respective use may be governed by some unwritten rule that I am not aware of.

joeri888
06-02-2012, 05:14 AM
Égalité and quarante-A are equivalent.

And used interchangeably? I think the Schiavone umpire did it very consistently in the way I described in the OP, but that's just the umpire's choice?

Faster
06-02-2012, 05:29 AM
What I thought I noticed is that the french make a distinction between 40-40 and deuce. The first time it's 40-40, they call quarante-un (dunno what the un exactly is, but it means 'all', quinze-un, trente-un as well). The second time they say égalité. Is that just me?

And if I'm right, are they the only ones to do so? You never hear 40 all. What is the history behind the scores and are they more accurate or just wrong?

I always call the first one 40-all (40-gelijk). It's just the natural progression: 40-30, 40-40, advantage, deuce, etc.

Sentinel
06-02-2012, 05:33 AM
From what @slice-bh-compliment once explained to us on another thread, yes, egalite is used after the first deuce.

jelle v
06-02-2012, 06:03 AM
That actually is a very handy distinction for the spectators.. you always know if its the first deuce in the game, or that the players are possibly playing a longer game..

Iron Man
06-02-2012, 06:37 AM
40 a means 40 à 40 and to avoid repetition they say 40 a

3 games all -- they say 3 jeux partout

when the match is over they say : jeu set et match Roger Federer

Iron Man
06-02-2012, 06:38 AM
That actually is a very handy distinction for the spectators.. you always know if its the first deuce in the game, or that the players are possibly playing a longer game..

that's correct

woodrow1029
06-02-2012, 07:34 AM
At Roland garros it should always be quarante-a first then egalite. Cedric mourier uses egalite first, but I think he's the only one.

In Canada they use egalite for the first deuce. Not sure about other French speaking countries.

It's not supposed to be umpires choice. The chair umpires are told any verbiage in advance Of the tournament that they are to use.

Mustard
06-02-2012, 10:25 AM
In French, 40-40 (Quarante A) seems to be used for the first deuce, and deuce (Egalite) only used for subsequent deuces.

In English, it's like saying 40 all for the first deuce, and deuce for subsequent deuces.

augustobt
06-02-2012, 10:39 AM
In French, 40-40 (Quarante A) seems to be used for the first deuce, and deuce (Egalite) only used for subsequent deuces.

You're correct. In fact, Egalité means equally. In portuguese, we say both "deuce", "iguais" or "igualdade" (depends of the umpire).

The "a" (quarante-a) has the same meaning of "all".

Mustard
06-02-2012, 10:55 AM
Of course, the famous French Revolution slogan was liberte, egalite, fraternite, meaning liberty, equality and fraternity.

finky
06-02-2012, 11:34 AM
My understanding is that they say 'un' when the score is level, but it sounds like 'a'. It is short for chaqun , meaning everyone or all.

pound cat
06-02-2012, 03:22 PM
What I thought I noticed is that the french make a distinction between 40-40 and deuce. The first time it's 40-40, they call quarante-un (dunno what the un exactly is, but it means 'all', quinze-un, trente-un as well). The second time they say égalité. Is that just me?

And if I'm right, are they the only ones to do so? You never hear 40 all. What is the history behind the scores and are they more accurate or just wrong?

re: quarante un. Un can mean the number one, but it can also mean "both" in the case of 40/40.

As in "all for one, and one for all"?? Oh, never mind about the 3 M's.

stormholloway
06-02-2012, 04:34 PM
You're correct. In fact, Egalité means equally.

I think you mean equality.

15_ounce
06-02-2012, 05:37 PM
deleted - i feel stupid

darrinbaker00
06-02-2012, 05:45 PM
40 a means 40 à 40 and to avoid repetition they say 40 a

3 games all -- they say 3 jeux partout

when the match is over they say : jeu set et match Roger Federer

Except when he plays Rafael Nadal, of course. ;)

Fugazi
06-02-2012, 07:11 PM
You're correct. In fact, Egalité means equally. In portuguese, we say both "deuce", "iguais" or "igualdade" (depends of the umpire).

The "a" (quarante-a) has the same meaning of "all".
Égalité means equality, not equally. It's a noun, not an adverb.