PDA

View Full Version : Does underspin becomes topspin after the bounce?


ktncnttl
10-02-2005, 04:15 AM
Thats what I heard. After the bounce topspin remains topspin but underspin becomes topspin. It could be the forward momentum of the ball doing the trick. Does anyone know if this is a fact for sure?

Marius_Hancu
10-02-2005, 04:22 AM
it's conceivable that the contact changes the direction of rotation on some balls having underspin, but not on all

it really depends on the initial spin, speed, roughness of court, surface of the ball

nViATi
10-02-2005, 07:34 AM
Thats what I heard. After the bounce topspin remains topspin but underspin becomes topspin. It could be the forward momentum of the ball doing the trick. Does anyone know if this is a fact for sure?
yeah but that won't make it bounce and act like a topspin ball

Tennismastery
10-02-2005, 07:39 AM
Absolutely correct! Except for a ball that is hit with tremendous slice and a trajectory that allows it to land in a more verticle angle, ie: dropshot, all shots will have topspin towards the reciever after the bounce.

I was amazed when I spoke at the world convention in Florida a couple years ago how many pros did not know this! I had several even say that many balls will have underspin after the bounce even on slice approach shots.

Ironically, everyone of those pros e-mailed me after careful study and observations that I was correct in this report. Try it yourself...hit a ball from anywhere on the court with a trajectory that is more forward than upward, and look at the ball after the bounce...you will see it is spinning with topspin after the bounce, even when it was hit with a lot of underspin.

There might be an exception to this on slick grass courts. I have not played on grass in ten years and don't remember if, because of the lower incidence of friction that, the ball may still have some backspin component after some severe underspin shots.

SageOfDeath
10-02-2005, 10:35 AM
if the ball countiues to move forward after the bounce then it will have topspin, but like nViATi said it won't make it really act like a topspin ball, because of the underspin it will bounce low.

"IF GOD HAD INTENDED THE BACKHAND TO BE ONEHANDED, HE WOULDN'T HAVE GIVEN US TWO HANDS "

hey god did intend for us to have a one handed backhand because we need the other hand for the takeback which is extremely important. ;)

ucd_ace
10-02-2005, 10:41 AM
Yeah, Sage and nViaTi added the important part to that... even though slice comes up with topspin on it, it doesn't really act like topspin. There are the very few occasions where a crazy miss hit produces so much slice that the ball will jump forward as if it had crazy topspin on it, but I've never seen it been close to being duplicated with any effect by someone intentionally.

Rickson
10-02-2005, 10:59 AM
Almost every ball bounces with forward spin, but a well struck slice will backspin, as long as the ball's not travelling fast toward your opponent. I know I've hit a few over and back slices so not all slice shots become topspin after the bounce, but a fast moving slice will.

Marius_Hancu
10-02-2005, 11:08 AM
Important distinction:

even if it would change the direction of spinning to become a virtual topspin, its trajectory after bounce would not be as high, as the angle of incidence with respect to the horizontal would not be as high either

Morpheus
10-02-2005, 11:15 AM
You can test this by crashing on your bike at top speed. You will find that you would have to be rotating backward very fast to overcome the incredible forward spin you will feel as you hit the pavement. You can test this alternately on pavement and gravel to approximate the difference between hard courts and clay, respectively, although I'd go with the gravel first for obvious reasons.