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TENNIS_IS_FUN
06-09-2006, 07:51 PM
It's true that agassi and federer use the same, semi-western grip. Is this accurate? When i watch these two players play, it seems as if federer uses a more extreme grip than agassi, which is probably why federer can generate so much top spin. Agassi generates top spin, but its not the super loopy type that federer has. Does agassi use a less extreme grip than federer? Also, correct me if i'm wrong, but a semi-western grip is when the base knuckle is on the 4th panel ??

DoubleHanded&LovinIt
06-09-2006, 07:54 PM
Federer is actually between a modern eastern and Agassi's mild semi-western grip. On average, you are correct, that Federer generates more topspin than Agassi--even with a milder grip. This is due to the fact that Federer tends to use more hand/arm/torso rotation than Agassi which is associated with swing shapes that produce more topspin.

BaseLineBash
06-10-2006, 12:32 AM
Federer is actually between a modern eastern and Agassi's mild semi-western grip. On average, you are correct, that Federer generates more topspin than Agassi--even with a milder grip. This is due to the fact that Federer tends to use more hand/arm/torso rotation than Agassi which is associated with swing shapes that produce more topspin.
Yeah, they both use an inbetween forehand grip the majority of the time. As for stroke, Agassi tends to punch at the ball while Federer tends to whip at the ball.

HyperHorse
06-10-2006, 03:44 AM
i always thought Federer uses an eastern grip on the forehand.