I think I know the answer to this, but figured I would pose it to the group here anyway just for clarification/confirmation. When playing a point (it happened to be *set point* tonight...)...my opponent hit a weak volley and I had to run up as fast as I could to the ball and, according to me, got to the ball before the second bounce and hit it up over the net to my opponent. He volleyed it back at me, and then I dinked a lob over his head. He ran back to retrieve the lob, and then hit the ball past the baseline on my side. I claimed the point for myself. Then, he walked back to the net and told me I didn't get to the ball before the 2nd bounce. I told him I was very sure I did, but he wouldn't change his mind. He didn't offer to play a let, which I would have, but since I knew I could beat him anyway I let him have the point. (I did end up winning the set :lol Much later on, I realized that if I wanted to be a hard a$s about it, I could've claimed the point was mine based on his continuance of playing the ball he claimed I didn't get to before the 2nd bounce, as well as retrieving the lob on my next shot. Am I right? His claim was that after seeing me not get to the ball before the second bounce, he "gave up" which is why he hit it back at me. But my thought was, "then why did you run back to hit the lob after that?" Your thoughts?