It's obvious from the fact that he's withdrawn from DC again, that Federer's days of believing in winning the davis cup are gone. He's not aiming for it anymore, or so it seems. I wonder therefore whether he might actually have deliberately lost to isner last year? He was obliged to play DC in order to be eligable for the Olympics. But in his quest for no. 1, more DC ties would only have bothered him.
Not saying he tanked, just curious whether you see it as a possibility?
Not saying he tanked, just curious whether you see it as a possibility?