Good morning to the TT community. I'm sorry if this has been asked/discussed previously. I looked and could not find my answer. I believe I know the rules on this one but have another question for you all.
Playing doubles on clay, if I receive a serve and hit a "good return" but my partner calls the serve out, upon checking the mark the serve was good, we play a let. Correct? A let is played because my return was in and not a "sitter" put away for our opponents....?
Now, I've read a lot about arguing line calls/in v out/ etc. but this came up yesterday.
In a good and competitive group(all 4.5s) my partner is serving at 40/15. His 1st serve was up the T but obviously about a foot long. My partner was serving and volleying, seeing his serve was out, he stopped. The returner, right handed, hit a week slice backhand(not a cut / more defensive or desparate) that floated 1/2 way into our duece service box. Both my partner and I were able to "kill" the sitting volley but we stopped our movement because the serve was so obviously out. My partner picked up the "dying ball" and went back to the base line.
The receiver's partner did not call the ball. The receiver did not call the ball. When my partner went to hit a second serve, the receiver said - "What are you doing? It's 40/30. So I said the ball was out - you can see the fresh mark behind the T. The receiver said it is his call.
In an officiated match, I believe it would have been second serve @40/15. As this is club tennis/non league do you think I was right to question him and point to the mark?
Ultimately, we played a let because the receiver's partner, though not seeing the serve, acknowledged that the new mark was from the serve( it was early in a freshly swept court). We played the "let" because of the time we took to discuss the issue - maybe two minutes in total.
Thoughts appreciated on what we did and the "official" ruling. It was not angry discussion and we moved on quickly and has some great tennis....
Playing doubles on clay, if I receive a serve and hit a "good return" but my partner calls the serve out, upon checking the mark the serve was good, we play a let. Correct? A let is played because my return was in and not a "sitter" put away for our opponents....?
Now, I've read a lot about arguing line calls/in v out/ etc. but this came up yesterday.
In a good and competitive group(all 4.5s) my partner is serving at 40/15. His 1st serve was up the T but obviously about a foot long. My partner was serving and volleying, seeing his serve was out, he stopped. The returner, right handed, hit a week slice backhand(not a cut / more defensive or desparate) that floated 1/2 way into our duece service box. Both my partner and I were able to "kill" the sitting volley but we stopped our movement because the serve was so obviously out. My partner picked up the "dying ball" and went back to the base line.
The receiver's partner did not call the ball. The receiver did not call the ball. When my partner went to hit a second serve, the receiver said - "What are you doing? It's 40/30. So I said the ball was out - you can see the fresh mark behind the T. The receiver said it is his call.
In an officiated match, I believe it would have been second serve @40/15. As this is club tennis/non league do you think I was right to question him and point to the mark?
Ultimately, we played a let because the receiver's partner, though not seeing the serve, acknowledged that the new mark was from the serve( it was early in a freshly swept court). We played the "let" because of the time we took to discuss the issue - maybe two minutes in total.
Thoughts appreciated on what we did and the "official" ruling. It was not angry discussion and we moved on quickly and has some great tennis....