Originally Posted by borg number one
What exactly happened to him and the failed drug test? I'm asking, because I don't recall the exact details, but wasn't it a "blood doping" situation? Was there some possible innocent explanation at all, or is the consensus now that he gained a significant competitive advantage unfairly? Perhaps there were lots of players at that time doing the same thing in hindsight, given what we know now in sports such as Baseball and even Tennis. Thanks in advance.
Who are you talking about here? Muster never failed a drugs test. Boris Becker insinuated that Thomas was taking drugs after the 1995 Monte Carlo final because he couldn't believe Muster's fitness in coming back to beat Becker from 2 sets down after spending the previous night on a drip at the hospital because of a lack of sugar in Thomas' bloodstream during the semi final against Andrea Gaudenzi. But when you run 10 miles a day like Thomas did, playing tennis matches is easy by comparison. When Thomas heard about Boris' accusations, he requested an immediate drug test, and it came back negative.