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Old 12-20-2009, 04:23 PM   #20
Join Date: Apr 2004
Posts: 4,611

Originally Posted by papatenis View Post
How do you measure a great volley? If you think Sampras was an all court player, then how did he win Wimbledon so many times when grass was "real grass"
You're backing up a questionable stretch of reasoning with another! Well, for one thing, when grass was "real" (it still is....that's another modern day myth in my opinion), you didn't HAVE to be a SV'er to win. However, in Sampras case, he did SV a lot at Wimbledon, in fact, earliy in his career, it was the one place he seemed to be a completely dedicated SV'er. Though he would sometimes do quite a bit on fast indoor courts....though early on...he'd often stay back indoors as well.

But there are other confounds to your original premise besides equate volley to slams...well, SO many other variables and interactions. To give an easy example, Cash had a significantly better volley than Becker...(so does say....Leander Paes for that matter), but of course, it's not reflected in their singles slam count.
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