Originally Posted by Carsomyr
Pure speculation and apples to oranges in the extreme. For example, if Open Era tennis had existed in, say, the 30s, how many majors would Laver have won from '60-'62, competing against the best pros?
There is a thread on this topic somewhere.
What if tennis had been OPEN during the 1950s? How long and when would Laver have caught up with the pros--if he'd been competing against them from day one, and not just after 1962.
Very speculative, but many concluded that he would have been forced to work harder and matured earlier competing against them. (I wonder where this thread is?)