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Old 11-10-2012, 01:57 PM   #5
tennisee
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Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: Australia.
Posts: 257
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Well - I'm still not sure; of course it seems sensible, but I'm having trouble finding any reference to it; the only one I can find would seem to indicate to the contrary...


USTA Comment 26.2: Can a player’s own action be the basis for
that player claiming a let or a hindrance? No. Nothing a player does
entitles that player to call a let. For example, a player is not entitled to a
Let because the player breaks a string, the player’s hat falls off, or a ball
in the player’s pocket falls out.
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