Originally Posted by hoodjem
Could he win "slams" on hard courts in 1969? Was it even possible?
If you want to take something away from Laver, then take it away because he failed or he stumbled, not because it did not exist or the world did not offer it.
He played all four slams. He won all four slams. Did he lose a match at the "slams" that year?
Like I have written before, Laver won Pro Majors on wood. Federer hasn't won a major on wood. Do we penalized Federer for not winning on wood? Of course not. He didn't have the opportunity and he probably would have. Same with Laver.