Originally Posted by CyBorg
It is very much a pseudo-argument, assuming a pseudo-argument is one that doesn't have a leg to stand on.
Your analogies are poor. Unlike Wimbledon, none of these stages were devalued by a pro/amateur split, in which certain players were banned from participating.
So either you are engaging in bad argumentation on purpose or out of ignorance.
You do realise that the pro-amateur split which existed when Rosewall reached his first 2 Wimbledon finals should have made it EASIER for him to win the title - as many of the top players, notably Gonzales, were not there. Yet he still couldn't get the job done.
The third and fourth times he reached the W final, the pro/am split didn't exist. It was the Open Era.