Originally Posted by MichaelNadal
I've always wondered this. We all know he considers this one of his toughest losses. Considering He always had so much respect for Rafa and he had been on top for so long, not to mention won the title the previous 5 years, should it really have bothered him that much? I think the press was ready to bury him at that point and were salivating over who would be the "next" guy, which is why he reacted the way he did after the AO final the next year. I think he was determined to show he wasn't done yet but maybe even started to question himself after that loss. Thoughts?
He was pretty upset but I think AO 2009 hurt way more tbh, at that point it looked like Nadal might even start winning all the HC slams regularly and I think Roger thought that his time might be up.