Originally Posted by Phoenix1983
Given his psychological problems having a 0-5 record in Wimbledon finals, I don't think it's inevitable he would ever have won it. Not sure why you and others assume he would definitely have won it had he been allowed to compete (remember Gonzales, Laver, Hoad etc. would have all been present as well).
This is one of those hypotheticals that people state as if they are definitives. No way to say if it would be true.
And given that some of the great players have failed to win on their worst slam during their prime...Lendl-Wimbledon, Sampras-FO, Borg-USO, Mac-FO etc...
Like you said...it's hypothetical and there's no answer if Rosewall would have Wimbledon had he played during his prime.