The concept of the windshield wiper is bogus

[Djokovicfan4life]

Originally Posted by stormholloway

What does this mean exactly? Are you implying that a) you know what I look like and that b) you find me unattractive?

c. None of the above.

[stormholloway]

Originally Posted by NamRanger

He didn't spin anything. You said when Nadal hits a standard forehand, he follows through across his body and underneath his shoulder. However; Nadal's "standard" forehand is not that type of forehand. His standard forehand is the reverse forehand, which he roughly hits 70% of the time (about 80% on clay).

Also, you stated with optimal positioning, Nadal hits the "across the body" forehand. However, that's not true. Nadal will usually hit his reverse forehand in that situation, UNLESS he is going for a winner, or going to approach the net.

I respectfully disagree.

Nadal hits a lot of different forehands, and he plays the shot with the higher finish as a more defensive and safer shot, but in my opinion his standard shot goes across his body.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZmolgoM4p-I

Here he is practicing his forehand. Why would he hit it across the body almost exclusively if this weren't his standard shot? Only at the end when he is pushed a bit out of position does he finish over his head, and it only happens once. Is he just having fun? Messing around?

[Djokovicfan4life]

Originally Posted by stormholloway

I respectfully disagree.

Nadal hits a lot of different forehands, and he plays the shot with the higher finish as a more defensive and safer shot, but in my opinion his standard shot goes across his body.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZmolgoM4p-I

Here he is practicing his forehand. Why would he hit it across the body almost exclusively if this weren't his standard shot? Only at the end when he is pushed a bit out of position does he finish over his head, and it only happens once. Is he just having fun? Messing around?

Because he's trying to hit a flatter ball. Duh.

[stormholloway]

Originally Posted by Djokovicfan4life

Because he's trying to hit a flatter ball. Duh.

Still being childish I see.

My point was only about his finish. In my opinion, his standard forehand (whatever standard means to me) is a shot straight across his body, ending below the shoulder.

By the way, a lower finish doesn't necessarily mean flatter. Sampras finished high all the time and hit a pretty flat ball. Federer finishes quite low and hits with more topspin than Sampras. There are a lot of factors involved.

[Djokovicfan4life]

Originally Posted by stormholloway

What does this mean exactly? Are you implying that a) you know what I look like and that b) you find me unattractive?

c) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypocrite

d) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dishonest

g) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Insecure

h) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arrogant

i) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malicious

j) all of the above.

[NamRanger]

Originally Posted by stormholloway

I respectfully disagree.

Nadal hits a lot of different forehands, and he plays the shot with the higher finish as a more defensive and safer shot, but in my opinion his standard shot goes across his body.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZmolgoM4p-I

Here he is practicing his forehand. Why would he hit it across the body almost exclusively if this weren't his standard shot? Only at the end when he is pushed a bit out of position does he finish over his head, and it only happens once. Is he just having fun? Messing around?

This hinges on what we are calling standard. Nadal hits ALOT more reverse forehands than the normal forehands. If we're saying standard is what stroke he uses more, he typically uses the reverse forehand finish more, especially on clay.


If you mean standard as in the "normal forehand" yes, you can call that wrap around his "standard" forehand I guess. Although it would be ambiguous to some, which is why I say his reverse forehand is his standard forehand, and the "normal" forehand is his finishing forehand.

[Djokovicfan4life]

Originally Posted by NamRanger

This hinges on what we are calling standard. Nadal hits ALOT more reverse forehands than the normal forehands. If we're saying standard is what stroke he uses more, he typically uses the reverse forehand finish more, especially on clay.


If you mean standard as in the "normal forehand" yes, you can call that wrap around his "standard" forehand I guess. Although it would be ambiguous to some, which is why I say his reverse forehand is his standard forehand, and the "normal" forehand is his finishing forehand.

He doesn't understand that what the pros do up until contact determines the finish, which in itself means nothing.

Matt

[stormholloway]

Originally Posted by Djokovicfan4life

He doesn't understand that what the pros do up until contact determines the finish, which in itself means nothing.

Matt

Of course I do. I already stated that I did in an earlier post, and that I was only referring to his finish.

Why do you insist on repeating this crap?

If you want, you can quote any post I made that demonstrates otherwise. If you can't, then, once again, you're just talking smack, which is about all you're good for, other than being Bungalow Bill's "bungalow boy".

[Djokovicfan4life]

Originally Posted by stormholloway

Of course I do. I already stated that I did in an earlier post, and that I was only referring to his finish.

Why do you insist on repeating this crap?

If you want, you can quote any post I made that demonstrates otherwise. If you can't, then, once again, you're just talking smack, which is about all you're good for, other than being Bungalow Bill's "bungalow boy".

Funny stuff. Keep posting.