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#281 | |
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Professional
Join Date: Sep 2010
Posts: 1,199
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Quote:
There is citation: “The golf swing may be divided into four specific phases: take-away, forward swing, acceleration, and follow-through. During the take-away phase, the wrist flexors exhibit minimal EMG activity, whereas the wrist extensors exhibit 33% of a maximum voluntary isometric contraction (MVIC). The forward swing is characterized by increased muscle activity of both the wrist extensors, which exhibit 45% MVIC, and the wrist flexors, which exhibit 35% MVIC. At ball contact, the wrist flexors activity significantly increases to 91% MVIC. … Results of a study of the muscular activity pattern of golfers with medial epicondylitis and golfers with no injury indicated significantly greater wrist flexor muscles activity in the golfers with medial epicondylitis during the take-away, forward swing, and acceleration phases.” I have problem with English and cannot understand clearly above statements. Does it mean that the wrist flexion must be almost maximally (91%) active at ball contact?????????? ![]()
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Anatoly Antipin - one of the most delicate tennis players in the world. Last edited by toly : 05-29-2012 at 06:23 PM. |
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#282 | |
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Legend
Join Date: Mar 2008
Posts: 7,371
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Quote:
I think it means the wrist extensors are giving a 91% effort. I don't think we know if that effort is to stabilize the stroke or flexion. Does look good for your point of view on the surface of things I suppose.
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#283 | |
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Professional
Join Date: Feb 2011
Location: Baltimore, MD
Posts: 1,319
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Quote:
Probably the EMG activity would be high for 1) high acceleration joint movement, flexion or extension, etc. 2) isometric type non-movement where the agonist muscle and its antagonist are both activated. No joint flexion or extension, etc. 3) when the joint itself is being accelerated by larger body parts and the muscle must be activated simply to keep the joint in the same degree of flexion or extension, etc..or to limit motion. 4) gripping a racket with no joint movement. Probably no EMG activation is required to stretch a muscle. If the muscle has been pre-stretched I would think that it might contract very rapidly without EMG activation.? EMG interpretation is a complicated subject. Does anyone have a readable reference to include EMG interpretation? Last edited by Chas Tennis : 05-31-2012 at 04:31 AM. |
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#284 |
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Hall Of Fame
Join Date: May 2006
Posts: 2,402
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whats going on here? are you guys saying its flexion?
Last edited by pushing_wins : 05-31-2012 at 11:31 PM. |
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#285 |
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Legend
Join Date: Mar 2008
Posts: 7,371
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Not most posters
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#286 |
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Professional
Join Date: Feb 2011
Location: Baltimore, MD
Posts: 1,319
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BTW - Update regarding EMG and muscle force-
A biomechanics researcher answered my question - EMG activation does not accompany muscle shortening that is supplied by the pre-stretched passive muscle component. This is important in biomechanics because the passive muscle component is described as being able to supply forces at higher muscle shortening velocities. I'm trying to interpret and understand this biomechanics principle (which I may have misstated). The issue is most clearly considered using the Hill Muscle Model description or similar model. I currently think it means that the highest velocities in athletics are probably supplied by passive pre-stretched muscles. ?? It's too bad biomechanics researchers never play tennis and use this stuff........ |
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#287 | |
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Hall Of Fame
Join Date: Apr 2007
Location: Staten Island
Posts: 2,724
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HEAD Graphine Speed Pro 12.3oz Last edited by Anton : 11-02-2012 at 07:40 AM. |
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#288 |
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Hall Of Fame
Join Date: May 2006
Posts: 2,402
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so whats the latest on the wrist deviation theory?
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