Rule Question on a Let Call

[Baxter]

I was serving in a USTA adult league doubles match at 40-30. I called out "add in" and tossed the ball for my serve when the receiver called a let. I finished the serve which landed in but he made no attempt to return it. Everybody was confused so I asked him why he called a let. He said, "You called the score wrong, it's 40-30 and you called add in." I said 40-30 is add in. His partner told me to play two and we kept playing.

I have two questions:

1. Did I get the score wrong? Is it add in when you're serving at 40-30 even if there hasn't been a duce?

2. If I did get the score right, what would the ruling have been?

[TeflonTom]

1. u got it wrong. ad = advantage. u only call it 4 the point won after deuce

2. doesnt matter if u were right or wrong. u cant serve til receiver is ready. if he wants 2 clarify somethin he can tell u to hold ur serve / play a let

[Baxter]

Originally Posted by TeflonTom

1. u got it wrong. ad = advantage. u only call it 4 the point won after deuce

2. doesnt matter if u were right or wrong. u cant serve til receiver is ready. if he wants 2 clarify somethin he can tell u to hold ur serve / play a let

He was ready. There was plenty of time (three or four seconds) between when I called the score and and my toss. He just made no attempt to return it because he had called the let during my toss. It just seems this could be abused and used as a form of gamesmanship. Basically I want to know what the ruling is if someone makes let calls when there is no let. Say I call a let because my opponent announces "five love" instead of fifteen love. It just seems wrong that he waited until the ball was in the air before he made the call about something so petty.

[TeflonTom]

that his prerogative brah. not ur place 2 say if he was ready or not

if he try 2 play ur serve then call let, then u got somethin to complain bout. but he didnt

[blakesq]

as soon as he called the let, he wasn't ready.

Originally Posted by Baxter

He was ready. There was plenty of time (three or four seconds) between when I called the score and and my toss. He just made no attempt to return it because he had called the let during my toss.

[michael_1265]

Originally Posted by Baxter

I was serving in a USTA adult league doubles match at 40-30. I called out "add in" and tossed the ball for my serve when the receiver called a let. I finished the serve which landed in but he made no attempt to return it. Everybody was confused so I asked him why he called a let. He said, "You called the score wrong, it's 40-30 and you called add in." I said 40-30 is add in. His partner told me to play two and we kept playing.

I have two questions:

1. Did I get the score wrong? Is it add in when you're serving at 40-30 even if there hasn't been a duce?

2. If I did get the score right, what would the ruling have been?

Are you playing tennis with Sheldon Cooper???????

That's a pretty minor issue to call a let for.

[jdubbs]

Let. First serve.

He only did it once. If he did it multiple times, that would be different.

[Tar Heel Tennis]

As a USTA Official, had I been called to your court to intercede, I would have asked you to call the correct score (although the outcome would be the same - you win the point, you win the game; you lose the point, it's deuce), since your opponent seemed to be bothered by your error.

Also, the let would have been granted, because it was called to clarify a scoring error.

* yes, I'm well aware that 40-30 and Ad-in are essentially the same thing, but technically, that's not true. It's a very minor issue, but in an officially sanctioned event, you are expected to follow the rules as explicitly as you can. Your opponent was correct in this instance.

[Baxter]

So I can call I let if I hear a dog barking a few blocks away, or maybe if my nose itches? What happens then?

QUOTE:

Are you playing tennis with Sheldon Cooper???????

END OF QUOTE

Good one!

[tennis tom]

Your opponent was correct on the score but was either being anal or using gamesmanship...it's the details that'll kill ya'.

[IA-SteveB]

Originally Posted by Baxter

So I can call I let if I hear a dog barking a few blocks away, or maybe if my nose itches? What happens then?

Not exactly a fair comparison in this context. You were called out on an error so the guy had a legitimate reason to call the let. What you are describing is looking for any reason to call a let just to do it. Just my humble opinion.

[TomT]

Originally Posted by Baxter

I was serving in a USTA adult league doubles match at 40-30. I called out "add in" and tossed the ball for my serve when the receiver called a let. I finished the serve which landed in but he made no attempt to return it. Everybody was confused so I asked him why he called a let. He said, "You called the score wrong, it's 40-30 and you called add in." I said 40-30 is add in. His partner told me to play two and we kept playing.

I have two questions:

1. Did I get the score wrong? Is it add in when you're serving at 40-30 even if there hasn't been a duce?

2. If I did get the score right, what would the ruling have been?

40-30 is equivalent to add in. I don't know what the rules say, but if your opponent made an issue out of something like that then, imo, he was being an *** and I hope you kicked his ****.

So far, I haven't had to confront that sort of pettiness in league play.

[tennis tom]

Originally Posted by Tar Heel Tennis

As a USTA Official, had I been called to your court to intercede, I would have asked you to call the correct score (although the outcome would be the same - you win the point, you win the game; you lose the point, it's deuce), since your opponent seemed to be bothered by your error.

Also, the let would have been granted, because it was called to clarify a scoring error.

* yes, I'm well aware that 40-30 and Ad-in are essentially the same thing, but technically, that's not true. It's a very minor issue, but in an officially sanctioned event, you are expected to follow the rules as explicitly as you can. Your opponent was correct in this instance.

Originally Posted by TomT

40-30 is equivalent to add in. I don't know what the rules say, but if your opponent made an issue out of something like that then, imo, he was being an *** and I hope you kicked his ****.

See the above by an official. I like your fightin' spirit, it's what got us independent from the Brits. Happy 4th of July and hope you're enjoying Wimbledon.

[floridatennisdude]

He was ok to halt play to clarify the score. Doesn't change the fact that he's an idiot though

[Steady Eddy]

If 40-30 is add-in, then is 30-30 deuce? In a practical sense, it is b/c from this point on, whoever gets ahead by two points is the winner. But in a strict sense, 40-40 is deuce, not 30-30, and 40-30 and 30-40 are not 'ad' points.

Since he made no attempt to return the serve, and had called 'let' before, I think what he did is ok. It's his business if he wants to be a stickler for the rules. I'd accept it and be tolerant. It doesn't sound like gamesmanship

[floridatennisdude]

^^^I've called 30-30 duece and 40-30 ad in for over 20 years. Most folks are sharp enough to get it.

[TomT]

Originally Posted by tennis tom

See the above by an official.

I see that I would be technically wrong.

Originally Posted by tennis tom

I like your fightin' spirit, it's what got us independent from the Brits. Happy 4th of July and hope you're enjoying Wimbledon.

It's just that I see no good point to such pettiness from players. For me anyway, the purpose of these recreational leagues is to have fun and make new tennis friends.

Happy 4th to you also, and yes I'm enjoying Wimbledon, simultaneously watching Tsonga-Kohlschreiber and Murry-Ferrer right now. Very exciting. These players are a joy to watch.

[tennis tom]

You do what ever you got to do to move the match along--this player was probably losing and had a stick up his *** and wanted to slow things up to get in your head. Learn the rules and play by the rules to lower ******y (vinagary, sorry censor) opponent's opportunities to derail the match.

[hcelizondo]

Originally Posted by TomT

40-30 is equivalent to add in. I don't know what the rules say, but if your opponent made an issue out of something like that then, imo, he was being an *** and I hope you kicked his ****.

So far, I haven't had to confront that sort of pettiness in league play.

There is a good reason to call the score the way it is supposed to. If there's a score dispute it is much easier to remember the points if those where called in the RIGHT way. A good advice t the OP is to read the code. Over there you will find the answers to your questions

[TomT]

Originally Posted by hcelizondo

There is a good reason to call the score the way it is supposed to. If there's a score dispute it is much easier to remember the points if those where called in the RIGHT way. A good advice t the OP is to read the code. Over there you will find the answers to your questions

I agree that the OP was technically wrong in calling the score the way he did. I also agree that the score should be called exactly according to the rules. But I disagree that it will ever make any difference whether 40-30 or add in is called. I've played about 800 matches and never once had a score dispute, and I've often heard "add in" instead of "40-30", etc.