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#81 | |
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#82 | |
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And where are your facts about Nalbandian and others are equal strong with Hoad? You should not blame me for not giving facts when you do the same... Last edited by BobbyOne : 10-30-2012 at 03:29 PM. |
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#83 | |
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#84 | |
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I think I'm always fair to other posters and I often praise their opinions. I only was "obnoxious" toward Limpinhitter after he had distorted my arguments. And I remember that I once called Dan Lobb an idiot for the same reason but I apologized soon for that. I have posted more than 1000 posts and I'm sure most of them are pretty fair. But I often contradict other posters when I think they are wrong. All posters contradict sometimes other posters. That's a fair discussion. Last edited by BobbyOne : 10-30-2012 at 08:27 AM. |
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#85 |
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i totally understand the need to define who is the greatest of all times, but surely every reasonable poster has to agree to do so is impossible, unless some criteria is defined and then it's a matter of cheking qhe numbers. even then it would be a matter of consensus, not necessarily about finding the TRUTH (if it exists).
we cannot compare eras. tennis was a different sport back then. there are so many things to consider. the mentality was different, the field was different, tennis was not a global sport, like today, with so many pros from so many different places, the training was different, the materials are allways changing, the press was different, the money was different, the brands were different, so on and so on. one can say: everyone, in each era, plays under the same conditions, so its fair. i think this is a wrong argument. some things are not easy to ignore. for example, today's game rewards bigger guys (but not to big). laver would be very small for todays criteria, he would be blown off court. a guy like ferrer has the path blocked for the biggest spots in the sport because of his height. i am not saying laver would not be a great player if he played today. i am saying one cannot be sure. if we look at the videos from back in the days, we see the serve had somewhat of a different importance. look at the laver roswell game at roland garros: if someone today served like that he would not stand a chance. funny enough, we dont have much black players playing tennis today, maybe because its not well paid (comparing), but its like when basketball was divided. its just not fair. just this should be enough to stop us making silly comparisons and projections. one thing is sure: if today's players with todays equipment played against past players with past equipment, today's players would destroy the ancient ones. BUT WHY? why has the game evolved/changed? if it was so great back then, with so many goat contenders playing? the change has to do with the materials, only? probably the biggest changes came with the increase in number of players, which create a faster pace of evolving. and that is why one cannot compare eras. what made the game more athtletic, fast and strong is also what makes almost impossible for todays guys to have the kind of relaxed domain over the tour the ancient guys had. to suggest someone from the 60's or 70's would have something like 25 majors is to say it all: imagine someone today wining those kind of numbers. actually federer could have if he was able to beat nadal at the french, but then no one else in the era would have double digits, which is what some posters are suggesting Last edited by absurdo : 10-30-2012 at 10:40 AM. |
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#86 |
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And? i think those arguments are inconsistent and circular. If we cannot compare eras, okay, fine, so please let it stand so. But then comes the old argument of the athletic progress. Fine, if someone thinks so, fare well. But this is comparing eras.
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#87 |
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urban, i think we can compare eras, of course. and its interesting and funny to do so. but, as i said and mantain, we can only say who is the goat if we agree on some criteria. all else is just fun.
PLUS: i think all 'we cannot compare eras' arguments exist to HELP/MAKE IT FAIR for the players of the past. because if we use our eyes as the sole criteria, then excuse me but i dont think they stand a chance. Last edited by absurdo : 10-30-2012 at 11:11 AM. |
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#88 | |
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The evolution of tennis racquets is the main reason why today's game is faster than former's. |
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#89 |
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I agree. That contradiction to his own statement is really absurdo...
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#90 | |
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[quote=kiki;6983166]
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Last edited by Prisoner of Birth : 10-30-2012 at 11:31 AM. |
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#91 |
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i did not contradict myself. obvisouly you cannot compare eras in order to define one goat. that was the original point. obviously...
and clapclap, so witty |
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#92 | |
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about the second sentence, i agree its BIG reason, but its not the only one. and i mantain my point, i think the fact that are much much more highly professional tennis players is a bigger diference. |
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#93 |
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I accounted for that. Laver won 8 pro-Slams when there were just 3 around. If there has been 4, he might have won (8 x (4/3)) = 11 on the upside. And I'm being very generous because Clay was Laver's worst surface and the figure comes up to less than 11 Slams in absolute terms. That's 11 pro-Slams, being generous. 11+5=16.
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#94 |
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absurdo, as so many other admirers of today's tennis, you yet contradicted yourself: Firstly you said that we cannot compare eras. Secondly you said that tennis now is much more evolved and Laver would not stand a chance today. That's comparing eras.
Last edited by BobbyOne : 10-30-2012 at 11:28 AM. |
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#95 |
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But what is "Hoad's best"? That's totally subjective. You could just say that Hoas was not at his best when he lost matches. You could say the same about anybody! Federer is unbeatable when he plays his best, Rosol is unbeatable when he plays his best, Donald Young is unbeatable when he plays his best. How do you define "playing at one's best"? How to quantize it? How do you decide on whether a player is playing at his best or not before the match ended (or has pretty much been decided)? The consideration that Hoad is unbeatable when he was at his best is a farce. It literally means nothing. How often was he at his best? And why wasn't he at his best in the matches he lost? Could it be that he was only said to be at his best when he won matches?
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#96 | |
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You still neglect the fact that Laver would most probably have won several additional event in the actual open era like Austrlian Open 1970 and Wimbledon 1972. |
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#97 | |
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#98 | |
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And you can't neglect something which is irrelevant. Laver didn't play them, he only has himself to blame. You can't just hand over Majors to players who didn't bother showing up. And it's not like he was on fire, either. He made 1 Major QF after his year of Greatness and just the 3R in the '71 AO. Stands to reason he wouldn't have won anything even if he'd played the AO in '72 or even '70. Last edited by Prisoner of Birth : 10-30-2012 at 01:19 PM. |
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#99 |
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i am an admirer of all tennis eras and great players.
it appears to be a contradiction but it is not, but maybe i was not clear and that is my fault: i dont think we can compair levels of greatness with absolute fairness. arguing who is the greatest across eras is to create unfair comparisons. what are we talking about? talent? inteligence? speed? strokes? serves? tactics? all these are subjective. are we comparing results and achievments? are seriously achievements across eras the same? are contexts the same? importance of certain tournaments the same? pro fields the same? are they comparable? i am just not sure they are. but i think its clear you can compare, for example, 2 videos of 2 different players, ignoring history and that they are 40 years apart. but this is hugely unfair for the old time players, in my opinion. i dont think it would be fair to compare laver's level of play at a certain point, (nowadays we can do it only via youtube) versus federer or nadal or novaks level of play on a certain video. sure i think laver would lose easily. but this doesnt reduce his level of greatness. so, we cannot use the same criteria for every era... |
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#100 | |
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