I've just realized that McEnroe got the year-end number 1 in 1982. I'd always assumed Connors had that, on account of his Wimbledon and US Open wins. http://www.tennis-x.com/stats/atprankhist.shtml I find this completely incomprehensible. Mind-boggling. Subreal. McEnroe was clearly not even number 2 that year, since Lendl had far, far better results than him, entering 23 tournaments and reaching the finals of 20 of them, ending the year with 15 titles (including 9 WCT + Master's) and 5 runner-ups -- to McEnroe's 5 titles and 5 runner-ups. McEnroe didn't win any slams, and none of his 5 titles were even WCT. In addition, he lost to Lendl all 4 times they played that year, including the US Open SF and the Master's final. Does anybody have a clue what the rationale was behind the ranking system that came up with McEnroe as number one for that year? Did they pull his name out of a hat? It makes no sense whatsoever.