Alcaraz vs. Big 3: Season-by-season breakdown !

What was roger doing at 19 ? :D

Edit: you're actually incorrect as well, he turned 19 during madrid 22 (1 − 8 May) Carlos' birthday is the 5th of may 8-B
No, you're the one who's wrong.
Alcaraz turned 19 on May 5, 2022 and beat Nadal on May 6 and Djokovic on May 7.
Checkmate, pal.
:p
 
It's pretty easy to argue Djokovic 08 > Alcaraz 24, no?

Djokovic AO 08 > Alcaraz WB 24
Alcaraz RG 24 > Djokovic RG 08 (I guess)
Djokovic USO 08 > Alcaraz AO 24
Alcaraz USO 24 = Djokovic WB 08 (Joe's perf slightly better but both suck anyway)

Djokovic YEC 08 >> Alcaraz YEC 24

Djokovic Olympics 08 > Alcaraz Olympics 24

Concerning masters events, Alcaraz '24 won IW nicely but was pedestrian afterwards (best result = 3 QFs, no great matches). Djokovic 08 won IW and Rome (though the latter draw was lol), lost Cincy F in two TB to Murray after beating Nadal, lost MC SF to Federer (easily/retired) and Hamburg SF to Nadal (tough match). Djokovic obviously superior.

Smaller titles: Alcaraz 24 won Beijing over i Sinner and that's it, no other good performances. Djokovic 08 actually didn't have a small title: lost Queen's F to Nadal, Bangkok F to Tsonga, Dubai SF to Roddick. You could say edge Alcaraz but there's little in it.

You forgot to mention Djokovic 2008 lost to a drunk ”I hate grass” Safin at Wimbledon. So freakin one sided that it made me think, he didnt want to play Federer in the next match.
 
You forgot to mention Djokovic 2008 lost to a drunk ”I hate grass” Safin at Wimbledon. So freakin one sided that it made me think, he didnt want to play Federer in the next match.
Djokovic lost to Safin in the second round of Wimbledon 2008.
He would have had to reach the semi-finals to face Federer in that edition.
:D
 
Djokovic was far better by level tbh. RG24 is amongst the lowest winning levels i've seen at a major.
Imho not even lowest among RG this decade:
Nole 2023 with the real "Final" in SF being kind of a RET from a cramping Raz who was about to put him things very tight is definitely worse. Didn't really face a better opponent than Raz did with Sinner, and that was a subpar Jannik far from his '25 version. Nole wasn't really tested that tourney

Not saying it's the case too but in 2022 as "epic" as that last dance was (not that USO '22 or Wimb '23 weren't "epic" for Raz either, but not what you're refering to) best game was actually another RET as well and Rafa himself, bar the very first two rounds and the final, wasn't that impressive

I can pick from my mind another 2 worse runs in RG this century alone (a century where more than half were Rafa's) by performance / competition level: Costa 2002 and Gaudio 2004 with two absolute letdowns of a final both

And if we combine majors then probably +10 this century alone, despite Big 3 racking up most of them

Stop with hyperboles guys
 
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Well ‘05-‘08 Nadal obviously clears that bar if the baseline is ‘22-‘25 Alcaraz. We’re not comparing him to ‘04-‘07 Federer.
How do you know that for sure lol we're only speculating on 2 players playing almost 20 years apart.
Anyway, point is that Alcaraz’ more varied winning distributions in a tour without Nadal have little bearing on how things would play out with them as contemporaries. Nadal would win more, because clay is that big of a bulwark…the corollary being that his “1 surface domination” would net him boatloads of slams no matter the era strength. The same can’t be easily said for ‘22-‘25 Alcaraz.
Do you base your opinion on the level of ATG's based on how they would do in different eras ? I mean is that your 1st criterion ? Because that's not something you ccan verifiy ...Bttw I'm also some one who believes that tennis as a proffession gets gruadually better ...top 50/100 players are way better IMO than they used to be 20-30 years ago.
Fedkovic lol, rooted against Nadal in almost every big match he ever played. Also much prefer watching Raz’s game to Nadal’s.
That's an unusual combo...so i guess young Nadal is keeping the fort against young Carlos for you 2 guys lol . Do you think Carlos outslams Fed in his 20's (17) ?

yeah and I don’t envision ‘22-‘25 Alcaraz winning much on HC and grass opposite Federer and Djokovic either.


I said Nadal was better.
I guess we will never know know for sure since carlos wasn't born in fed/novak's era...

I think he'll outslam the 3 of them if he stays healthy
 
How do you know that for sure

That peak Federer is a much more appropriate standard-bearer for all-surface excellence than either version of Nadcaraz?

Well, isn’t he?

How do we “know” Ned is a better clay courter than the non-overlapping Wilander? We “don’t,” BUT…


Do you base your opinion on the level of ATG's based on how they would do in different eras ?

Not entirely, but this is too glaring a factor to dismiss. Youngdal keeps his RG’s if he plays alongside Alcaraz; in order for Raz to keep up he will need to sweep elsewhere. Don’t really see that happening. In this case “different era” is more shorthand for “worse competition” though, and it’s tennis I don’t see how we can reasonably ignore the effect competition has on results.

Nor can we ignore a standard of play so transcendent (Nadal on clay) as to be virtually era-proof. I’ve yet to hear a single solid reason why his stratospherically higher MOV doesn’t sufficiently counterbalance the one extra slam Alcaraz has against weaker opponents, while trailing everywhere else (Masters, Oly’s, smaller titles). One guy was barely losing sets in his wins, the other often barely…winning.


I mean is that your 1st criterion ? Because that's not something you ccan verifiy

Yeah, nothing but cold hard results can be verified. But what’s the fun of this convo if we just compare context-free numbers?



...Bttw I'm also some one who believes that tennis as a proffession gets gruadually better ...top 50/100 players are way better IMO than they used to be 20-30 years ago.

I’ve said too much about this over the years to come up w much novel material. My position on this was summed up in the below thread:


^To this I’d just add that quality at the lower rungs ≠ tennis becoming harder for those at the top. Tennis is an obscenely top-heavy sport and surface/condition convergence (optimal game-style — power baselining mainly — varies less from surface-to-surface than ever before, “problematic” courts like sticky RA and 30% fescue grass with bad bounces replaced, no more indefinite final sets, no more Super Saturday, emerging players priced out by training/coaching/dietary demands w more straight-line paths to improvement given how much of this has been whittled down to a science—see: Djoko’s hyperbaric chamber, multi-million dollar team—etc ), the tour catering to players (abolishing blue clay cuz Djokodal went wah-wah, tournament day-night preferences of main attractions followed slavishly by organizers) and stable technology has made it “easier” for top players to compile numbers than any point in OE history. I expand on this in another post:


An unrealistically extreme thought experiment to illustrate the effects of tour convergence: try to picture a permanent switch to all-clay in 2005. Average per-match quality doesn’t move much, so what changes? Well Nadal, health remaining the same, ends up the undisputed numerical GOAT…because while he didn’t get “better” and the tour didn’t get “worse,” things got easier for him.

Mind you I don’t think TB3 are exempt from this, they benefitted from homogenization too - but they, blessedly, had each other to keep one from making a mockery of tennis. And there were still wisps of parity-forcing variety for much/all of their early primes/peaks (I mean the tour transition to poly wasn’t even complete til around ‘09 ffs).


That's an unusual combo...so i guess young Nadal is keeping the fort against young Carlos for you 2 guys lol .

Youngdal is the better player and thus should get the amount of credit commensurate with that truth. I’ve always been a hard-ass about mass-over/underrating of players/player traits, even my favourites. In my ideal world Alcaraz would’ve already shown us he’s got the best peak and I wouldn’t be scrutinizing the inflated numbers-to-reputation ratio. Alas Nadal’s uglier, “less complete” early game was more effective.


Do you think Carlos outslams Fed in his 20's (17) ?

40/60 yes/no.

If he rises to the level of peak Fed on his way to it, it’ll be wonderful news and I’ll cheer it on, because he’s got a beautiful game and a million-dollar attitude.

If he “just” doubles his ‘22-‘26 exploits and then some (4 more to pass), it will suck imho. I won’t be able to drink the Kool-Aid.
 
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That peak Federer is a much more appropriate standard-bearer for all-surface excellence than either version of Nadcaraz?

Well, isn’t he?
He might but l look at it this way ; if we were to switch Carlos and Nadal (04-08 <--> 22-25) I don't think nadal is winning much more than he won in that era ..he's not beating sinner on HC for me He end up with the same tally maybe 1 more wimbledon which would bring him to 7 like carlos. On the other hand Carlos wins most of those clay titles like nadal...roger took his sweet time on that surface...He also gets the 09 AO imo and rustles 1 or 2 non clay slams out of fed inishing with a 6 or 5 tally but this is all speculation .... I hate this exercise tbh
How do we “know” Ned is a better clay courter than the non-overlapping Wilander? We “don’t,” BUT…
I look at the achievements than do an eye-test... I don't think wilander survives the sheer pace and intensity of a nadal for example...it's easy for me to extrapolate that( based on my own judgement which could be wrong).


^To this I’d just add that quality at the lower rungs ≠ tennis becoming harder for those at the top. Tennis is an obscenely top-heavy sport and surface/condition convergence (optimal game-style — power baselining mainly — varies less from surface-to-surface than ever before, “problematic” courts like sticky RA and 30% fescue grass with bad bounces replaced, no more indefinite final sets, no more Super Saturday, emerging players priced out by training/coaching/dietary demands w more straight-line paths to improvement given how much of this has been whittled down to a science—see: Djoko’s hyperbaric chamber, multi-million dollar team—etc ), the tour catering to players (abolishing blue clay cuz Djokodal went wah-wah, tournament day-night preferences of main attractions followed slavishly by organizers) and stable technology has made it “easier” for top players to compile numbers than any point in OE history. I expand on this in another post:


An unrealistically extreme thought experiment to illustrate the effects of tour convergence: try to picture a permanent switch to all-clay in 2005. Average per-match quality doesn’t move much, so what changes? Well Nadal, health remaining the same, ends up the undisputed numerical GOAT…because while he didn’t get “better” and the tour didn’t get “worse,” things got easier for him.

Mind you I don’t think TB3 are exempt from this, they benefitted from homogenization too - but they, blessedly, had each other to keep one from making a mockery of tennis. And there were still wisps of parity-forcing variety for much/all of their early primes/peaks (I mean the tour transition to poly wasn’t even complete til around ‘09 ffs).
But this is why I dislike inter-era match ups ...how do you hope to have an accurate estimation of levels when players play under so much different conditions ...the variables are innumerable. After looking at the achievements and strength of field I simply rely on my eye test ( which could be wrong , not claiming it's better ) to determine which player plays at a higher level. I'm put off by simulation of if this guy did this he'd do that....

It's like when I hear if Sinner had converted those MP's he would've won the channel slam - I say he wouldn't because that event would change the future events that follow up ...if Carlos had won Wimbledon against sinner would he have went on that strict 2 week regiment to try and dethrone Sinner at the USO ? I really don't care for hypothetical events.
Yeah, nothing but cold hard results can be verified. But what’s the fun of this convo if we just compare context-free numbers?
No agreed , but after looking at the numbers and weighing in the perceived quality of comp. I prefer to rely on my eye-test insteead of these hypothetical match ups that don't satisfy me.

For me in absolute terms it's impossible to know how things might work out ... I just like to look / compare the actual tennis I see added numbers to that. but no numbers are not everything.
 
Youngdal is the better player and thus should get the amount of credit commensurate with that truth. I’ve always been a hard-ass about mass-over/underrating of players/player traits, even my favourites. In my ideal world Alcaraz would’ve already shown us he’s got the best peak and I wouldn’t be scrutinizing the inflated numbers-to-reputation ratio. Alas Nadal’s uglier, “less complete” early game was more effective.
Let me put it this way if we absolutely have to do a simulation ( which I'm very unsure of how it would play out in reality because it's not reality lol)

If Carlos/Nadal from the age of 18 to 22 played today at the majors:

AO: 4-1 Carlos
RG: 5-0 Nadal
Wimby : 3-2 Carlos ( he adapted quicker to grass)
USO : 4-1 Carlos

11-9 final score...even if you give the advantage to nadal at Wimbledon it would turn out a tie.
 
Let me put it this way if we absolutely have to do a simulation ( which I'm very unsure of how it would play out in reality because it's not reality lol)

If Carlos/Nadal from the age of 18 to 22 played today at the majors:

AO: 4-1 Carlos
RG: 5-0 Nadal
Wimby : 3-2 Carlos ( he adapted quicker to grass)
USO : 4-1 Carlos

11-9 final score...even if you give the advantage to nadal at Wimbledon it would turn out a tie.

I don’t abide by this since it imo serves little purpose to have so many matches when they’re out of form, I mean how would they even be likely to take place? To wit:

AO:

‘04/‘21 - Neither are contenders, 50-50 match; if it occurs it’ll be in an early round.

‘05/‘22 - Neither are contenders, but Nadal would be the favourite.

‘06/‘23: Neither play

‘07/‘08 + ‘24/‘25 l: Neither in slam-winning form but Nadal has some good wins in ‘07; 1-1 maybe?

RG:

‘04/‘21: If Nadal plays, he is the favourite, but neither would be strong contenders even when healthy.

‘05-‘08/‘22-‘25: Nadal the prohibitive favourite each year, but they probably don’t play each year.

Wimbly

‘04/‘21: Nadal injured, Carlos not a contender. The match would hold as much value for evaluating them as Rafter-Fed at ‘99 RG.

‘05/‘22: Neither are contenders, favourite status goes to Alcaraz but he almost got bounced of the 1st round which takes some sting off Nadal’s loss to Muller.

‘06-‘08/‘23-‘25: I think Nadal wins all three but we’ll never agree on that, though I believe you’d probably concur that ‘08/‘25 is the only pretty straightforward call.

USO:

‘04/‘21: Alcaraz the favourite but they’re unlikely to meet, and if they do it wouldn’t even matter, like what is an early-round between scrubs (lol) supposed to tell us about their legacies?

‘05/‘22: Alcaraz is the firm favourite, but again they probably don’t intersect!

‘06/‘23: Not too much separating them upon completion of the penultimate match, Alcaraz the favourite, unlikely they even play.

‘07/‘24: Nadal the favourite based on form and especially before the 4th round but…they likely wouldn’t play. Not likely to be consequential match-up.

‘08/‘25: Alcaraz the favourite.
 
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He might but l look at it this way ; if we were to switch Carlos and Nadal (04-08 <--> 22-25) I don't think nadal is winning much more than he won in that era ..he's not beating sinner on HC for

He’d be in prime position to win all four of his RG’s back, would be 1st favourite in all three Wimbledon’s from ‘23-‘25 and shows up fresh at the ‘25 USO with no Olympics. Meanwhile if M1000’s are given the same priority based on pure form extrapolation he’d completely clean up against absurdly light fields on clay and elsewhere; even in his own time against tougher opponents he won 12 (not including Oly’s, which would’ve been in his wheelhouse in ‘24) to Carlos’ 8.


He end up with the same tally maybe 1 more wimbledon which would bring him to 7 like carlos.

Carlos had 6 at the end of ‘25.


On the other hand Carlos wins most of those clay titles like nadal...

How does that work out?

‘05/‘22 - Federer reached the semi without losing a set and gave Nadal a tough match using HC tactics; Alcaraz lost to Zverev in the QF

‘06/‘23: Alcaraz admitted to crumbling mentally at the prospect of playing 36 y/o Djokovic, why would his nerves/body hold up against Federer who had an amazing CC season to boot?

‘07/‘24: This was the closest Federer ever played prime Nadal at RG and he had another amazing CC season, where is Raz’s favourite status coming from?

‘08/‘25: Here he’d be the favourite going off how each played in the final (Federer’s suicidal tactics would not be repeated, but I’ll still give it to Alcaraz)

Median RG wins: 1 imo lol. 2 absolute max if his ‘24 version channels theretofore unseen levels, but not based on demonstrated level.

roger took his sweet time on that surface...He also gets the 09 AO

I thought we were doing ‘04-‘08 v ‘22-‘25 (assumed you meant ‘05-‘08 for Ned)

Carlos is winning squat at the AO in those years…if we are now including ‘09, well, Nadal already won that; mighty generous to pencil him a win over prime Federer or even Verdasco in the cramping-equivalent stage.

imo and rustles 1 or 2 non clay slams out of fed inishing with a 6 or 5 tally but this is all speculation

Where even speculatively?

‘06-‘08 Fed / ‘23-‘25 Carlos at Wimby - meeting might be on the docket but only if Alcaraz gets through all the inevitable early scares to even reach Federer, who lost 5 sets in non-Nadal 38ish non-Nadal matches.

‘08 Fed / ‘25 Carlos at the USO - think Federer deserves the benefit of the doubt as he was riding the huge win streak and would be by far the best slam opponent Alcaraz has beaten.


So if we’re being maximally charitable and give Alcaraz 2 RG, can you really expect him to snag……..FOUR off-clay slams from peak/prime Federer?

I look at the achievements than do an eye-test...

How do you reconcile eye-test with form-test? Namely the aforementioned bit about Nadal’s form being so much better throughout their parallel slam wins?


I don't think wilander survives the sheer pace and intensity of a nadal for example...it's easy for me to extrapolate that( based on my own judgement which could be wrong).

I meant on a relative basis (no telling how Wilander is reared with poly/Nadal with gut in the ‘70s-‘80s - does his foot make it through a Junior slam season much less the pro tour?) but in any event I can’t fathom how the gap would be thaaat much bigger than the one between a guy that won everything for 4 years vs. a dude that made 10/34 finals on the games predominant surface (15/41 on non-clay overall..Fed was 42/50 … I mean come on now I think we can suspend our disbelief).


But this is why I dislike inter-era match ups ...how do you hope to have an accurate estimation of levels when players play under so much different conditions ...the variables are innumerable. After looking at the achievements and strength of field I simply rely on my eye test ( which could be wrong , not claiming it's better ) to determine which player plays at a higher level. I'm put off by simulation of if this guy did this he'd do that....

It's like when I hear if Sinner had converted those MP's he would've won the channel slam - I say he wouldn't because that event would change the future events that follow up ...if Carlos had won Wimbledon against sinner would he have went on that strict 2 week regiment to try and dethrone Sinner at the USO ? I really don't care for hypothetical events.

No agreed , but after looking at the numbers and weighing in the perceived quality of comp. I prefer to rely on my eye-test insteead of these hypothetical match ups that don't satisfy me.

For me in absolute terms it's impossible to know how things might work out ... I just like to look / compare the actual tennis I see added numbers to that. but no numbers are not everything.

Yeah we probably won’t ever come to much agreement on this lol and that’s alright.
 
Let me put it this way if we absolutely have to do a simulation ( which I'm very unsure of how it would play out in reality because it's not reality lol)

If Carlos/Nadal from the age of 18 to 22 played today at the majors:

AO: 4-1 Carlos
RG: 5-0 Nadal
Wimby : 3-2 Carlos ( he adapted quicker to grass)
USO : 4-1 Carlos

11-9 final score...even if you give the advantage to nadal at Wimbledon it would turn out a tie.
It's the other way around.
:-D:giggle::laughing:
 
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^To this I’d just add that quality at the lower rungs ≠ tennis becoming harder for those at the top. Tennis is an obscenely top-heavy sport

But it does.

It's true it's a top-heavy sport, but what applies to those who trail you in the ranking also affects you indirectly.

If top 100 or 50 is better than 20 years ago (it is, I'll explain just down below) then those in the top, say, 30 or top 15 are up to more upsets. It hurts their consistency. And they may gradually get a bit underrated as a consequence of that.

Now, the pool is better simply because tennis is more popular, global and studied than ever (don't have clear data right now but it'd be cool to check them out, like the evolution on total # of IPINs). Academies got more players and funds, big developing nations are starting to grow a sport culture and there's basically as much interest and resources as ever. Apart from natural fluctuations at the very top, that's a general tendency that will continue to apply for the foreseeable future.

In general, excelling in such scenario is more difficult. Percentile 1 of a pop of 100 is just the best player. Percentile 1 of a pop of 200 are now 2. Best player of the second distribution is actually Percentile 0'5, a bigger outlier / a better natural talent most probably.

and surface/condition convergence (optimal game-style — power baselining mainly — varies less from surface-to-surface than ever before, “problematic” courts like sticky RA and 30% fescue grass with bad bounces replaced, no more indefinite final sets, no more Super Saturday, emerging players priced out by training/coaching/dietary demands w more straight-line paths to improvement given how much of this has been whittled down to a science—see: Djoko’s hyperbaric chamber, multi-million dollar team—etc ), the tour catering to players (abolishing blue clay cuz Djokodal went wah-wah, tournament day-night preferences of main attractions followed slavishly by organizers) and stable technology has made it “easier” for top players to compile numbers than any point in OE history. I expand on this in another post:

Quite overrated imo

By raw logic even that has its own natural drawbacks and limits.

A clear limit is a player's scheduling's optimization being physically driven basically now. Main reason ATGs don't win more today is because they don't play more because they're already overextended. Main reason they lose is because of tireness. Which brings us to the physical conditioning: arguably tougher than ever.

A drawback is simply that other players do also benefit from such "improvements" or tools. Including most importantly ATG peers.

ATGs were also specialized on surfaces themselves. See your logic with Nadal: one could imagine Borg vulturing on natural for quite a bit longer had he decided to.

USO is the hardest slam to win and rack up today, see Fed's curse. Why? Well, it simply got the largest pool of decent competitors.

With homogenization you're basically trading one or two exploitable slams for three or four more uncertain ones. Similar expected value.

Main reason 70's-80's players didn't win as many GS was cause they didn't rate them that much. Voluntarily skipping majors in their schedule had greater to do with that than any intrinsic "surface tax". Pete was the first player to put them in the place they deserved. Since then every succeeding ATG passed his record (at the end of their careers).

Now: poly, baseline era, modern medicine and other factors you mention still play a part most probably. But globalization is too great a burden by itself not to render the inflation argument short-sighted and naturally limited.
 
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But it does.

It's true it's a top-heavy sport, but what applies to those who trail you in the ranking also affects you indirectly.

What I meant is that it doesn’t have to equate to tennis becoming harder (than before) for those at the top if there are countervailing factors (the ones I listed), not that there’s no effect in a vacuum.


If top 100 or 50 is better than 20 years ago (it is, I'll explain just down below) then those in the top, say, 30 or top 15 are up to more upsets. It hurts their consistency. And they may gradually get a bit underrated as a consequence of that.

But this isn’t happening. Tennis was at its “deepest” (most upset-prone) in the ‘90s. And it had little to do with the state of the field itself…”strong/weak” <— that’s immaterial. It was the varied conditions.

Now, the lower-ranked players are better in some respects. But the roadmap to winning for those at the top is also more straightforward. Hence:




Now, the pool is better simply because tennis is more popular, global and studied than ever (don't have clear data right now but it'd be cool to check them out, like the evolution on total # of IPINs). Academies got more players and funds, big developing nations are starting to grow a sport culture and there's basically as much interest and resources as ever. Apart from natural fluctuations at the very top, that's a general tendency that will continue to apply for the foreseeable future.

These are fine points, but they don’t fully engage with what I’m saying. There I wasn’t exactly arguing the field is weaker per se (to be clear: I do believe it is, because the players at the top are worse than those of a generation ago and this is of paramount importance in a sport like tennis. But whether it is or isn’t weaker…ain’t relevant to this argument. It could be strong, weak, or anything in between, and the separate point I’m making would still apply).

The bemusing thing is that tournament directors/the tour at large are transparently trying to increase the staying power of their best players. They’re not complying with ther often rigid preferences “just because.” Djokovic, Nadal and Fed marched to the beat of their own drum and got to play when they wanted, same with Alcaraz and Sinner now, for a reason. This is a recent phenomenon and the reasons underpinning it are clear. Ditto for Majors shifting from 16 to 32 seeds ( Spanish and SA dirters used to moan about the old seeding system endlessly at Wimby, btw!)

Quite overrated imo

Perhaps. But I don’t think it’s a mere coincidence that the most longevity-friendly periods in tennis history double as the most equipment-stable…and the least as…the least.

‘78 - Dunlop introduces the first graphite racquet

‘97 - Guga is the first pro to make a splash with polyester strings, and within 10 years 95% of the tour embraces them.

And in the intervening 20-25 years, from the first modern frame being introduced to poly becoming mainstream, tennis undergoes a period of parity it has never seen in its history.

Flex point or random? No one can say for sure. But the rest of tennis history is characterized by overwhelming, sustained dominance by the very top players.
A clear limit is a player's scheduling's optimization being physically driven basically now. Main reason ATGs don't win more today is because they don't play more because they're already overextended.

Chronically injured Nadal won 22 Slams/36 M1000’s playing a brutally attritional style 70-80 times a year for over a decade. Djokovic kept a full schedule for about 13-15 years until the wheels finally fell off. Federer’s style put the least amount of strain in his body, but even he was a veritable Ironman for most of 20 years.

Sinner and Alcaraz aren’t unduly handicapped and if they’re gonna aim to peak for slams at the expense of the rest of the calendar (à la Serena) then that gives them less room for grace and error, not more imo.


A drawback is simply that other players do also benefit from such "improvements" or tools. Including most importantly ATG peers

That’s if they can break the bank, but again even if improvements occur they are less impactful in a homogenized landscape where the optimal default game varies less from surface to surface (the main reason Channel Slams were more impressive back then).

ATGs were also specialized on surfaces themselves.

Partially true, but this was in some part out of necessity. Only so much time in a day to work on creating separation over your peers in every facet/style of play (loosely akin to a swimmer trying to master every single stroke/race - generally not a good use of your resources. If the OC halved the amount of races, suddenly it would become less of an obstacle).

See your logic with Nadal: one could imagine Borg vulturing on natural for quite a bit longer had he decided to.

Borg was one of the most versatile players of all time. He won RG from the back of the court, Wimbledon SnV’ing, and then resumed baseline-walling indoors where the surface speeds were similarly swift but, unlike old grass, the bounces were truer.

Absolutely not a “specialist” just because he won 7 of 35 outdoor HC tournaments in a time when they weren’t as prevalent…that’s about in-line with Carlos’ career hit rate, fwiw. Guy had only four shots to even win an HC slam and made the final three times: in ‘78, when his blisters were so bad that the racquet was flying out of his hand; in ‘80, when he took McEnroe to 5; and ‘81, when he again lost to Mac after beating Tanner and Connors. Not bad for your worst court (outdoor HC’s in general).




USO is the hardest slam to win and rack up today, see Fed's curse. Why? Well, it simply got the largest pool of decent competitors.

i don’t think one follows from the other. If anything the competition at the USO has been the thinnest over the last 12-15 years, with many of the worst and most gutted winning draws taking place there. I’d caution against selectively looking for counter-data when tennis is overwhelmingly “trending” (not a fan of that word but it’s apt here D: ) top-heavy, increasingly so since the early 2000’s.

Main reason 70's-80's players didn't win as many GS was cause they didn't rate them that much. Voluntarily skipping majors in their schedule had greater to do with that than any intrinsic "surface tax".

yes it’s part of why Borg, Connors and Mac didn’t add to their counts, but parity actually reached a crescendo after Lendl and co. helped usher the AO into “respectable slam” status.


Pete was the first player to put them in the place they deserved.

Rosewall, Laver and Pancho won with TB3-level frequency long before Pete (again, maybe a coincidence, but: this happened during another mostly stable period in tennis history equipment-wise lololol).


Now: poly, baseline era, modern medicine and other factors you mention still play a part most probably.
But globalization is too great a burden by itself not to render the inflation argument short-sighted and naturally limited.

Globalization hasn’t made tennis a financially viable sport for more than a couple hundred people at any time. It hasn’t increased the parity index.

At the end of the day we’ve got the same 2-3 guys winning just like we did in TB3 era, but they haven’t quite shown the level the latter did at their best.

It’s an empty guarantee, but I would nonetheless guarantee that, if the tour decided to mirror ‘90s conditions, parity would start to return. That’s how you manufacture “depth.”
 
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What I meant is that it doesn’t have to equate to tennis becoming harder for those at the top if there are countervailing factors (the ones I listed).

My point is those countervailing factors do not necessarily make up for the better pool and, if anything, inflation itself is kind of overrated.

Let's be honest, inflation is mainly used as a way to put in doubt actual players raw skills and true merits. And my point is it's never probably been more difficult to stand out on that, ever, on a general basis and despite what our perception of top 3-10 in the last couple of years may be (that'll be as temporary as Rafagassi's hair, guaranteed).

But this isn’t happening. Tennis was at its “deepest” (most upset-prone) in the ‘90s.

Starting to run circles there.

Upsets to who? The two main ATGs? Top 5 any given year? Not what I'm saying at all!

Any statistical distribution got two key parameters: average and variance. Results on the top are measured sort of by the second one, but that doesn't tell you all about the overall level (that is, form of distribution, average, etc).

Given a certain level of domination (like, say, Sincaraz') you have two extreme possibilities in the greyscale of "inflation plausibility" (there's also a whole other scale on the right for "actually, underrated"): they're overrated cause pool and chasers are off, or they're basically legit.

Big3 era to Sincaraz today may be too short of a time span yet (maybe not early Fed era) but it's not wild to think the whole distribution has marginally moved to the right - that is, improved.

Now, has pool (that is, the complete number of pros) actually regressed from the 90's? Hard to imagine. So probably it's just we made a bigger deal of these "upsets" when they were not such at all, maybe Sampras was not that great nor minimally reliable on clay to start with. Same for Agassi on grass, etc, surface variation itself being of course greater still. But again, they profited big on surfaces of their own.

With that in mind it's difficult to imagine gatekeepers of another eras doing it substantially better than your Musetti, Draper, Mensik... of today.

That ultimately concerns top two too. Maybe they're not that far off from being true outliers on a more professional tour than ever. I like and respect history-friendly tier rankings, in the sense it's good to know where we come from and the other kind of challenges of past eras, to basically give them their deserved spotlight for the contribution they made to the sport. But if we're cold objective and willing to compare ATGs among eras as a pure tennis product, then for me it's clear as day who the better overall "package" is, pound for pound and beyond all historical rifts in conditions. And if we're turning purely meritocratic in the sense of how much they've needed to battle to get to their position then we may need to open the debate on whether a #10 on 2026 > a #3 on 1986 (may not be as abrupt skill wise, but probably correlated to an extent too).

And it had little to do with the state of the field itself…”strong/weak” <— that’s immaterial. It was the conditions.

Answered above.

Now, the lower-ranked players are better in some respects. But the roadmap to winning for those at the top is also more straightforward. Hence:


Problem is it's also more difficult to stand out in an homogenized era. It's a simple set theory problem.

Given a certain heavily specialized slam in the 90's (Wimbledon or RG f.e.) pool is effectively divided by 4. You're only facing best case scenario a quarter of "specialized players" (in reality even less because most did so on HC back then already). You may have it tougher to rack up any of the other two, but grass is an open field in comparison.

Now you think players got more chances to rack up different slams, but it's also true to all their rivals. At the end compound effect more or less evenly cleans out.

These are fine points, but they don’t really engage with what I’m saying. I wasn’t saying the field is weaker in that quote bubble (to be clear: I believe it is, because the players at the top are worse and tennis is a top-heavy sport. But whether it is or isn’t wasn’t relevant. It could be strong, or weak, or anything in between, and what I’m saying would still apply).

Which players at the top? Compared to which eras, or years specifically? How much so? Graded to what scale? The pool?

I generally agree top 3-10 is as of now poorer than on specific periods of the past, including most notably 79-84, 08-12, etc

But to what extent and what conclusions we draw from that is limited for the reasons I mentioned.

Perhaps. But I don’t think it’s a mere coincidence that the most longevity-friendly periods in tennis history double as the most equipment-stable…and the least as…the least.

‘78 - Dunlop introduces the first graphite racquet

‘97 - Guga is the first pro to make a splash with polyester strings, and within 10 years 95% of the tour embraces them.

And in those 20 years tennis undergoes a period of parity it has never seen in its history.

Yeah longevity plays a bigger role than homogenization per se, agree.
 
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Chronically injured Nadal won 22 Slams/36 M1000’s playing a brutally attritional style 70-80 times a year for over a decade. Djokovic kept a full schedule for about 13-15 years until the wheels finally fell off. Federer’s style put the least amount of strain in his body, but even he was a veritable Ironman for most of 20 years.

Sinner and Alcaraz aren’t unduly handicapped and if they’re gonna aim to peak for slams at the expense of the rest of the calendar (à la Serena) then that gives them less room for grace and error, not more imo.


Got flashbacks from the Iron Man line on that: "Tony Stark did it in a cave with a box of scraps..." man was old MCU good.

Jokes aside, Nadal is an outlier itself, and it's not as if homogenization or globalization didn't apply to them already. I think it's fair to think it followed a log curve: very fast first, but with gradual deceleration on a whole.

Despite that, I could see Alcaraz playing more games than Big 3 grand total (on average; that is, a third lol).

That’s if they can break the bank, but again even if improvements occur they are less impactful in a homogenized landscape where the optimal default game varies less from surface to surface (the main reason Channel Slams were more impressive back then).

Guess you meant more, hence "inflation".

You're only seeing one side of the coin. It's the sports equivalent of money printing without looking at monetary inflation (just a silly example).

Even if what you say was true (I think it holds true somewhat) other factors you mentioned, including longevity play a huuuge greater role.

Borg was one of the most versatile players of all time. He won RG from the back of the court, Wimbledon SnV’ing, and then resumed baseline-walling indoors where the surface speeds were similarly swift but, unlike old grass, the bounces were truer.

Absolutely not a “specialist” just because he won 7 of 35 outdoor HC tournaments in a time when they weren’t as prevalent…that’s about in-line with Carlos’ career hit rate, fwiw. Guy had only four shots to even win an HC slam and made the final three times: in ‘78, when his blisters were so bad that the racquet was flying out of his hand; in ‘80, when he took McEnroe to 5; and ‘81, when he again lost to Mac after beating Tanner and Connors. Not bad for your worst court (outdoor HC’s in general).

Didn't mean he was not a beast. Just that he was simply much better on natural, for reasons (be that his specialization, surface variance or a bit of both). And that level or degree of specialization didn't hurt his GS tally much. His early retirement clearly did.

Nadal most probably wins the same number of RG of 2005-08 (that is, his 4) in any other era. You mentioned yourself how that benefited his GS count timelessly.

It's ofc a product of his own merit, but specialization even in an age of homogenization is not bad per se.

i don’t think one follows from the other. If anything the competition at the USO has been the thinnest over the last 12-15 years, with many of the worst and most gutted winning draws taking place there. I’d caution against selectively looking for counter-data when tennis is overwhelmingly “trending” (not a fan of that word but it’s apt here D: ) top-heavy, increasingly so since the early 2000’s.

I honestly think it does. Relation is clear: more decent seeded and wildcards -> greater base level -> tougher.

I don't think it's coincidence either largest tally there is just 5 OE.

It's clear playerbase specializes most notably on HC lately and USO specially. That's for two main reasons: one is ofc x2 majors. The other is the US federation being the biggest and most important still today. Facing an American in loudy Arthur Ashe is still quite a challenge.

Can you elaborate? I don’t follow.

Basically what I expressed above.

Take this:

X (expected value of total GS) = P1 (chances going into GS 1) * n1 (number of GS 1 entries) + P2 * n2 + P3 * n3 + P4 * n4

Given a 50% decreased pool on a certain slam of your specialization, your base prob on such slam basically doubles in a sudden (your chances decrease to a quarter in those others, if I'm correct).

Take these are 2 and 3 (on a calendar year: natural surfaces). Then: X2 (specialized scenario) = 1/4P1 * n1 + 2P2 * n2 + 2P3 * n3 + 1/4P4 * n4

Let's take our initials P1, P2, P3, P4 identical for calculus convenience (same for ns). Then:

X2 = 4'5 P*n which is even slightly larger than X = 4 P*n

Notice how n (longevity) basically increases your expected value almost linearly (if not for declining which we're not factoring here).

Now, we could discuss how these prob realy translated irl. They may not be proportional at all. But it serves as an example our aprioristic perception of odds are badly screwed. Even if these x2 were just x1'5 fwiw (questionable, and it would also favorably affect their decreased chances on worst slams, but anyway) that'd still be 3'5 P*n which is still too similar to our homogenization scenario. Inflation would only account for 12'5% of the difference. Or, to put it differently, 14GS in the 90's would translate to ~15'75, shy of 16GS today.

yes it’s part of why Borg, Connors and Mac didn’t add to their counts, but parity actually reached a crescendo after Lendl and co. helped usher the AO into “respectable slam” status.

Now I don't follow you here.

Rosewall, Laver and Pancho won with TB3-level frequency long before Pete (again, maybe a coincidence, but: this happened during another mostly stable period in tennis history equipment-wise lololol).

Here, with all due respect, I'd also argue the floor level was just too low if we wanna make a direct comparison with today, as expressed in first reply.

Globalization hasn’t made tennis a financially viable sport for more than a couple hundred people at any time. It hasn’t increased the parity index.

It really has.

We would go politics there which I don't think is appropiate here.

Just two points: not only has GDPpc historically increased greatly, but GINI notably decreased as well.

At the end of the day we’ve got the same 2-3 guys winning just like we did in TB3 era, but they haven’t quite shown the level the latter did at their best.

Made it about objective metrics this far this post. Reckon that's another debate.

Agree to disagree on perceived eye test levels though. But really respect your opinion there.

It’s an empty guarantee, but I would nonetheless guarantee that, if the tour decided to mirror ‘90s conditions, parity would start to return. That’s how you manufacture “depth.”

I think I made my point clear now on why I disagree.
 
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My point is those countervailing factors do not necessarily make up for the better pool

I know you think this. :p I’m just saying “but what applies to those who trail you in the ranking also affects you indirectly” is not something my case hinges on, and I even agree with the statement.


Let's be honest, inflation is mainly used as a way to put in doubt actual players raw skills and true merits.

I don’t know about others, but there’s no ulterior motive with me. I’m saying things I actually believe.

And my point is it's never probably been more difficult to stand out on that, ever, on a general basis and despite what our perception of top 3-10 in the last couple of years may be (that'll be as temporary as Rafagassi's hair,

Disagree.

Starting to run circles there.

Upsets to who? The two main ATGs? Top 5 any given year? Not what I'm saying at all!

Any statistical distribution got two key parameters: average and variance. Results on the top are measured sort of by the second one, but that doesn't tell you all about the overall level (that is, form of distribution, average, etc).

Given a certain level of domination (like, say, Sincaraz') you have two extreme possibilities in the greyscale of "inflation plausibility" (there's also a whole other scale on the right for "actually, underrated"): they're overrated cause pool and chasers are off, or they're basically legit.

Big3 era to Sincaraz today may be too short of a time span yet (maybe not early Fed era) but it's not wild to think the whole distribution has marginally moved to the right - that is, improved.

More upsets to higher-ranked players, more unheralded slam winners and finalists, less separating the cream of the crop from the rest.

i.e, more parity.


Now, has pool (that is, the complete number of pros) actually regressed from the 90's? Hard to imagine.

Of course it’s hard to imagine, because I didn’t argue this. :p

What I said about the ‘90s is that the conditions enabled parity. The strength of the field is again immaterial.

So probably it's just we made a bigger deal of these "upsets" when they were not such at all,

No, they were. I should really spend a few hours and make a long-form post/maybe thread on this lol, because it’s a verifiable claim.

maybe Sampras was not that great nor minimally reliable on clay to start with. Same for Agassi on grass, etc, surface variation itself being of course greater still.

Sampras and Agassi did have natural limitations but they were exacerbated by tour conditions. For example, much like Sinner Andre was never going to be a serve-and-volleyer. Unlike Sinner, he had to play on less durable grass courts that produced highly unreliable bounces.

So he just had to “deal with it,” so to speak. There’s little of that today. Again: no sticky RA courts, no crazy bounces on grass, no playing whenever the organizers declare, no Super Saturday, or 16 seeds, or carpet, or having to employ radically different game styles to win on different courts.

And, most important of all, many of these things were changed for the precise purpose of making it easier for top players. Let’s focus on one tournament for a second. Here’s the old Paris Masters tourney director Jean-Francois Caujolle talking about bending over backwards to please one Roger Federer:

“It turned out that he didn't like the carpet surface we had then at all and advised us to contact an Austrian company which designed a type of resin similar to that of Vienna. We did this and fulfilled his wishes. We got in contact with the company and changed the surface.”

Now here is current tournament director, Cedric Pioline, with a more recent comment:


"We wanted to reduce the speed of the court," director Pioline explained on Tuesday. "We were told that last year's court was too fast. There is never truly a consensus.

^
This was last year, in response to Federer himself alleging that the courts are being tinkered with to suit Alcaraz and Sinner. Notably no denial.

Putting aside how big a role reduced court speeds actually play (I’m in agreement with @NonP that their effect on serving especially have been overstated), the point here is that they’re openly being more and more accommodating to the wants of top players than ever…for the obvious (and $ound) reason that they want these players to stick around and increase the chances they make it to the back end of their tournaments. This is not a luxury afforded to everyone. Novak Djokovic (one of my favourites) plays whenever he wants. Alex de Minaur (who I don’t like) doesn’t, and has to eat it.


But again, they profited big on surfaces of their own.

With that in mind it's difficult to imagine gatekeepers of another eras doing it substantially better than your Musetti, Draper, Mensik... of today.

It was only 10 or so years ago that our gatekeepers were Tsonga, Ferrer and Berdych. All of these guys are better (though, to be consistent: I maintain depth is still window dressing. As good as they were—and they were plenty good—they won little of note in a field dominated by three Tier 1 greats. The field doesn’t have prime-level Tier 1 greats now, so yes I do reckon Tsonga would especially do better than before, and much better than the three you listed, while Ferrer would probably be a Zverev-level player peak-wise, but with more consistency using 2012-13 as a guide).
That ultimately concerns top two too. Maybe they're not that far off from being true outliers on a more professional tour than ever. I like and respect history-friendly tier rankings, in the sense it's good to know where we come from and the other kind of challenges of past eras, to basically give them their deserved spotlight for the contribution they made to the sport. But if we're cold objective and willing to compare ATGs among eras as a pure tennis product, then for me it's clear as day who the better overall "package" is, pound for pound and beyond all historical rifts in conditions. And if we're turning purely meritocratic in the sense of how much they've needed to battle to get to their position then we may need to open the debate on whether a #10 on 2026 > a #3 on 1986 (may not be as abrupt skill wise, but probably correlated to an extent too).

As mentioned to @Gastino much of my cross-era-comparison thoughts were summed up in the thread I linked. Don’t mean to sound standoffish, it’s just requires a lot of typing for me to repeat my stance. :-D


Problem is it's also more difficult to stand out in an homogenized era. It's a simple set theory problem.

On a given surface, maybe (though I disagree). Year-round, no.

If your natural skillset is tailored to one court, it’s more transferable to another.

That’s why I invoke the clay thought experiment: if the tour changed to all-clay in 2005 we can reasonably infer that, health and drive permitting, Nadal would be the far-and-away GOAT today. Not because the tour got weaker/quality dropped. Not because he got much better, in absolute terms. No, they’re again immaterial. Nadal would be the GOAT because things got streamlined via almost complete style/overall tour convergence.

Given a certain heavily specialized slam in the 90's (Wimbledon or RG f.e.) pool is effectively divided by 4.

“Divided by four” is a bridge too far but yes, it was extremely difficult to cultivate a game that could dominate from pillar to post. Serving being less automatic helped maintain some parity even for non-specialists, though (you still had Bruguera and Muster winning hard court titles, Corretja and Guga making waves at the YEC, floaters EVERYWHERE, and so on).


You're only facing best case scenario a quarter of "specialized players" (in reality even less because most did so on HC back then already). You may have it tougher to rack up any of the other two, but grass is an open field in comparison.

This is a good general point to contend with but theory and reality have been too divergent.

Now you think players got more chances to rack up different slams, but it's also true to all their rivals.

There won’t be many real rivals. Outside of a 20 or so year period, most of tennis history has been absurdly top-heavy. Only when the tour is sufficiently varied have you gotten truly “open” fields, where over a handful of top players routinely have respectable pre-tournament winning odds.

Which players at the top? Compared to which eras, or years specifically?

My explicit point is that it isn’t relevant to the argument I made. I gave my opinion as a sidebar so that you knew where I stood, but also to demarcate it from the position I was outlining.

Yeah longevity plays a bigger role than homogenization per se, agree.

No I’m saying it makes extreme longevity more possible.
 
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Got flashbacks from the Iron Man line on that: "Tony Stark did it in a cave with a box of scraps..." man was old MCU good.

With you here!
Jokes aside, Nadal is an outlier itself, and it's not as if homogenization or globalization didn't apply to them already. I think it's fair to think it followed a log curve: very fast first, but with gradual deceleration on a whole.

Oh homogenization definitely benefitted them, not always relative to one another (Federer benefitting the least is its own disadvantage), but certainly relative to Sampras, Mac and others.


Guess you meant more, hence "inflation".

No, less, as in: absolute improvements from the best-of-the-rest may be less impactful in a homogenized tour.

You're only seeing one side of the coin. It's the sports equivalent of money printing without looking at monetary inflation (just a silly example).

No, you (respectfully) misunderstood my argument.
Even if what you say was true (I think it holds true somewhat) other factors you mentioned, including longevity play a huuuge greater role.

Longevity and homogenization go hand-in-hand.
Didn't mean he was not a beast. Just that he was simply much better on natural, for reasons (be that his specialization, surface variance or a bit of both).

There’s a comparable gap between Sinner on HC/clay as there is Borg clay/grass + outdoor HC.



And that level or degree of specialization didn't hurt his GS tally much. His early retirement clearly did.

My main argument was that Borg was special enough to overcome these obstacles; that’s why I regard him as the outlier of outliers. He’s the only player to ever win a Channel Slam using radically different styles.

That said, the creeping influence of graphite would’ve been his biggest test. His hybrid backhand was suited for wood. Not saying that’s why he retired, naturally.

Changing conditions more tangibly hurt Sampras (poly becoming popular in his late 20’s) and McEnroe (Lendl being more suited to graphite, the first generation of graphite power players dragging his ass).

Nadal most probably wins the same number of RG of 2005-08 (that is, his 4) in any other era. You mentioned yourself how that benefited his GS count timelessly.

Yep, good catch. It’s a big reason why I think he’s a better player than Young Carlos.
It's ofc a product of his own merit, but specialization even in an age of homogenization is not bad per se.

It’s not bad at all, but notice that Nadal could export his clay court game/return positioning to other surfaces. Borg couldn’t. Even Lendl, one of the greatest baseliners ever, who had average volleys and a surprisingly poor overhead, was forced to serve and volley on grass. He didn’t serve-and-volley 110+ times against Cash because he had a skill for the tactic. He had to do it. That’s what made Agassi winning from the baseline so unbelievable.
I honestly think it does. Relation is clear: more decent seeded and wildcards -> greater base level -> tougher.
I don't think it's coincidence either largest tally there is just 5 OE.

That’s not why there have been a greater variety of winners there in the 2000’s compared to other 2000’s slams. It’s the tournament that has been most sizeably affected by injuries/wear and tear/weird circumstances. An abbreviated list to cover some of the years a more “unsung” champion won:

‘14: Nadal out, Murray injured, Djokovic plays a chucklefuck of a match to lose to one of his bunnies.

‘16: Federer misses a non-clay slam for the first time ever, Djokovic battling injuries and sees unprecedented draw luck (a walkover, TWO retirements)

‘17: (Nadal is not an unsung champ but still important to mention) - Djokovic, Federer and Murray ALL injured.

‘19: (ditto for above) Federer and Djokovic, the two pre-tournament favourites, both injured.

‘20: Federer injured, Nadal doesn’t play, Djokovic tags a lines woman as the massive favourite.

‘21: Djokovic, much like Carlos in ‘23, visibly wilts at the prospect of achieving history, Nadal and Federer are injured.

‘22: Djokovic banned, Nadal injured and consequently crashes out, Federer unofficially retired.


Give me a slam tournament THAT beset by injury/misfortune over a 10 year span in the 2000’s. There isn’t one. It’s a blip on the radar and doesn’t refute or offset broader trend.


It's clear playerbase specializes most notably on HC lately and USO specially. That's for two main reasons: one is ofc x2 majors. The other is the US federation being the biggest and most important still today. Facing an American in loudy Arthur Ashe is still quite a challenge.

The examples of Americans upsetting true contenders are few and far between, little difference than from other slams I’d reckon.


Basically what I expressed above.

Take this:

X (expected value of total GS) = P1 (chances going into GS 1) * n1 (number of GS 1 entries) + P2 * n2 + P3 * n3 + P4 * n4

Given a 50% decreased pool on a certain slam of your specialization, your base prob on such slam basically doubles in a sudden (your chances decrease to a quarter in those others, if I'm correct).

Take these are 2 and 3 (on a calendar year: natural surfaces). Then: X2 (specialized scenario) = 1/4P1 * n1 + 2P2 * n2 + 2P3 * n3 + 1/4P4 * n4

Let's take our initials P1, P2, P3, P4 identical for calculus convenience (same for ns). Then:

X2 = 4'5 P*n which is even slightly larger than X = 4 P*n

Notice how n (longevity) basically increases your expected value almost linearly (if not for declining which we're not factoring here).

Ah I see, a continuation of what we were talking about. My apologies, was just confused by the initial wording. I’ll keep my response to this point confined to the other post, to avoid redundancies.


Now I don't follow you here.

After the field started participating at the AO en masse, parity in tennis increased (for unrelated reasons).

It really has.

We would go politics there which I don't think is appropiate here.

Just two points: not only has GDPpc historically increased greatly, but GINI notably decreased as well.



No, I’m not talking about the world at large, or denying the effects of globalization, or even arguing the positive effects haven’t trickled down to tennis.

Just the thing I explicitly said: Globalization hasn’t made tennis a financially viable sport for more than a couple hundred people at any time. It hasn’t increased the parity index.

And it hasn’t. A few hundred touring pros break even playing tennis every year. Parity in tennis also hasn’t increased. Not talking about worldwide economic parity/equallty. Well aware it’s not 1945 ( the US accounting for half the world’s GDP) anymore.



Agree to disagree on perceived eye test levels though. But really respect your opinion there.

Likewise, regardless of some misunderstandings I think we’ve come a long way from our old chats.
 
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I always believed that the 16 year age gap works both ways in that Djokovic also took advantage of a pre-prime Alcaraz for a while
True, but in the same way Djoko got more years being in an advantageous position than Federer, same thing with Alcaraz now. Djoko got the upper hand in 2022 (even though he could not compete becuase of COVID in many tournaments) and 2023, but from 2024 until Novak retires Alcaraz has/will have the advantage.
 
Is Sinner even better than Berdych?
statements made by the utterly deranged
I remember him almost swaggering to beat Murray at the 2010 French Open, and beat Murray in straight sets.
the Murray who was 26-21 on clay at tour level at that point? wow what a big match
I think Nadal visually deflated Djokovic’s level
ehh Nadal wasn't the one preventing long rallies in the 2nd set, and i think it would be dangerous to take your reading into the mythical 3rd set, where they went 9-9 in 10+ rallies. peak of the sport RG '08 Nadal barely better not just in scorelines but eye test too, compared to peaking Glutenovic in his 2nd-worst conditions?

this exact case is actually part of why i'm becoming increasingly skeptical about the sizes of peak gaps people (not @ ing you specifically Octo) implicitly assume to be the case in their evaluations/prognostications - even in the most asymmetry-producing case possible (add on poly era, clay, and lack of Djokovic matchup advantage off hard courts as relevant factors), we could still get a tiebreaker! and from there it's a pretty short hop to seeing it as basically impossible for a meaningfully elite player to get straight setted

retrospective disagreement with myself in #46 on the Fed vs Djo @ 36 thread
Literally getting people to claim Carlos and Sinner are terrible frauds who would be third tier players in any other era just to try to stay consistent with their prior arguments
i remember noting in #484 to Nat on the Fognini thread, that it's hard to argue that old Djokovic was so favored by not facing younger ATG talents, and simultaneously argue that '24-onwards Janlitos are (only?) comparable to post-prime Big 3. meanwhile the more extreme Fedfan route is to selectively grant and retract ATGness depending on if Djokovic is losing to Janlitos, or argue that Janlitos aren't true ATGs in the first place
 
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There is no universe where being 36 is an advantage over being 20.

At 20, a player is at his physical peak, even if they are lacking some experience.

At 36, no amount of experience will make up for sluggish legs.

This especially true here since we are talking about a player that makes of athleticism his trademark.
Borg frauded out by squandering his age advantage and getting straight setted by Laver on green clay
Take Cincy 23 for example. Does it show how pre-prime Alcaraz was that he choked a set and a break lead against 36 year old Djoko? Sure, but by equal measure prime Djoko doesn't gas that horribly and fault three times in a row to get broken in the first place.
prime Djokovic in Cinci retired against Murray, shat the bed vs Federer twice, and lost to Isner and Robredo. it's not "by equal measure" at all!
You can't say this about 2013+ Federer - even if he gives his best he can't overcome his peak self. Which does necessarily imply that peak Roddick/Hewitt > peak 2013+ Federer on grass
how does this make sense though? '14/'15/'17 Federer at Wimbly was a better server than Roddick for the purpose of going up against his peak self as a returner (due to disguise and +1 abilities), and did literally everything (besides FH power-based ballstriking) else better; and then he was a better server and all-courter than Hewitt, by bigger and more important margins than all the other stuff (since you already, presumably, similarly grant Roddick making it close with Hewitt, on the basis of just his serve + FH advantage)
‘08-‘12. Federer was better on grass, HC, indoors. Djokovic was much better on outdoor/indoor HC, and kept up on grass. Both were more complete. Yet even in this tough 5-year period Nadal won the most of the three on the strength of his clay dominance. It doesn’t seem like anyone cares to tackle the implications of this, but it’s a decent proxy.
1. if you reframe to "who was better by level in that period" you get Nadal > Federer >= Djokovic, which aligns with their big titles (8 Slams + 1 Oly, 5 + 2 YECs, 5 + 2)
2. if achievements can be influenced significantly by timing and competition as you've stated, then it's pretty reasonable that they can also be influenced by conditions and skillset, which doesn't in itself say anything about the inherent superiority of specialization/completeness
Nadal still managed to win 6 HC slams/make 11 finals while sharing an era with them.
3 Ws, 3 Fs in his prime and that era; 3 + 2 '17-onwards. Murray was 1 + 6
Alcaraz has been better on HC (read: the US Open) than Youngdal but has also never had a year to himself as the best HC’er (‘26 is pending).
but you didn't have that for Nadal in '09, '10, or '13, only in '19 (based off the Hitman '03-'23 thread, all of which i'd agree with fwiw), and Nadal wasn't being blocked by peak Fedole in any of those years, so how is that relevant?
 
i remember noting in #484 to Nat on the Fognini thread, that it's hard to argue that old Djokovic was so favored by not facing younger ATG talents, and simultaneously argue that '24-onwards Janlitos are (only?) comparable to post-prime Big 3. meanwhile the more extreme Fedfan route is to selectively grant and retract ATGness depending on if Djokovic is losing to Janlitos, or argue that Janlitos aren't true ATGs in the first place
The next generation of ATGs is going to be relegated to comparisons with 4th tier players like Gonzo, Monfils, Tipsarevic once 30s versions of Sincaraz beat them in slams. Turtles all the way down.
 
ehh Nadal wasn't the one preventing long rallies in the 2nd set, and i think it would be dangerous to take your reading into the mythical 3rd set, where they went 9-9 in 10+ rallies. peak of the sport RG '08 Nadal barely better not just in scorelines but eye test too, compared to peaking Glutenovic in his 2nd-worst conditions?

this exact case is actually part of why i'm becoming increasingly skeptical about the sizes of peak gaps people (not @ ing you specifically Octo) implicitly assume to be the case in their evaluations/prognostications - even in the most asymmetry-producing case possible (add on poly era, clay, and lack of Djokovic matchup advantage off hard courts as relevant factors), we could still get a tiebreaker! and from there it's a pretty short hop to seeing it as basically impossible for a meaningfully elite player to get straight setted

Well that’s just it, I have no issue spotting Sinneraz 10-12+ games against ‘08 Nadal once every few times, enterprising serves and forehands do be like that. Median outcome is probably something like 3/4/2 but over-performances or simple variance can influence things and I’m not as liable to haggle over set scorelines. I thought Djokovic played a fantastic set (which coincided with Nadal getting too comfortable, not that bad to have only 2 of your 21 sets be competitive), but ‘25 Alcaraz could’ve very well matched Djoko’s third , and I don’t think it would say much we don’t already know. mentioned it mainly because Alcaraz’ competition was given the decisive advantage and I can’t relate to that level of certitude given what Fedkovic had on the other side of the net. Maybe their level was indeed somewhat higher; still don’t think the deserving “all-time match” label spares them from a much less climactic encounter with ‘08 Rafa.
 
1. if you reframe to "who was better by level in that period" you get Nadal > Federer >= Djokovic, which aligns with their big titles (8 Slams + 1 Oly, 5 + 2 YECs, 5 + 2)
2. if achievements can be influenced significantly by timing and competition as you've stated, then it's pretty reasonable that they can also be influenced by conditions and skillset, which doesn't in itself say anything about the inherent superiority of specialization/completeness

Sounds about roight :D

3 Ws, 3 Fs in his prime and that era; 3 + 2 '17-onwards. Murray was 1 + 6
but you didn't have that for Nadal in '09, '10, or '13, only in '19 (based off the Hitman '03-'23 thread, all of which i'd agree with fwiw), and Nadal wasn't being blocked by peak Fedole in any of those years, so how is that relevant?

Bolded: my second sentence in the quote bubble was a separate statement. The opposing framing was that surface completeness bridges the clay gap yet so far Raz’s better HC play hasn’t yielded even one year where he’s been the outright best on HC. I’m not saying Nadal was regularly deprived of this distinction by Peak Fedole just that, if Carlos’ HC prowess makes up THAT much ground, it SHOULD ensure he’s regularly the best HC’er (much less in a less competitive HC field). That’s a nod to how large Ned’s clay advantage looms, not a denial that Raz will end up > Ned on HC and/or was better over equivalent ages.
 
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Borg frauded out by squandering his age advantage and getting straight setted by Laver on green clay

prime Djokovic in Cinci retired against Murray, shat the bed vs Federer twice, and lost to Isner and Robredo. it's not "by equal measure" at all!

how does this make sense though? '14/'15/'17 Federer at Wimbly was a better server than Roddick for the purpose of going up against his peak self as a returner (due to disguise and +1 abilities), and did literally everything (besides FH power-based ballstriking) else better; and then he was a better server and all-courter than Hewitt, by bigger and more important margins than all the other stuff (since you already, presumably, similarly grant Roddick making it close with Hewitt, on the basis of just his serve + FH advantage)

1. if you reframe to "who was better by level in that period" you get Nadal > Federer >= Djokovic, which aligns with their big titles (8 Slams + 1 Oly, 5 + 2 YECs, 5 + 2)
2. if achievements can be influenced significantly by timing and competition as you've stated, then it's pretty reasonable that they can also be influenced by conditions and skillset, which doesn't in itself say anything about the inherent superiority of specialization/completeness

3 Ws, 3 Fs in his prime and that era; 3 + 2 '17-onwards. Murray was 1 + 6

but you didn't have that for Nadal in '09, '10, or '13, only in '19 (based off the Hitman '03-'23 thread, all of which i'd agree with fwiw), and Nadal wasn't being blocked by peak Fedole in any of those years, so how is that relevant?

The same Borg who has a 6-2 h2h against Laver, never lost a bo5 match to and only lost to when he was barely 18? You sure we are talking about the same Borg?
 
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prime Djokovic in Cinci retired against Murray, shat the bed vs Federer twice, and lost to Isner and Robredo. it's not "by equal measure" at all!
Fair enough I guess, my broader point was that despite the Alcaraz second set lapse Djokovic still had to dig monstrously deep to win that match in historically bad conditions for him (and go on to have a perfect rest of the season) and deserves credit thus. I find all these pre/post prime debates regarding the match futile when it was functionally a coin flip match by the third set.
 
prime Djokovic in Cinci retired against Murray, shat the bed vs Federer twice, and lost to Isner and Robredo. it's not "by equal measure" at all!
Not quite fair given that the Murray loss was injury-related; that 2012/15 Cincy Federer >>> 2023 Cincy Alcaraz; and that peak HC masters Isner is no joke, might well be > 2023 Cincy Alcaraz as well (considering also Karl literally had to save MP vs HuHu in SF). The Boredo loss was bad of course, wasn't Djokovic on a honeymoon or something at the time?
how does this make sense though? '14/'15/'17 Federer at Wimbly was a better server than Roddick for the purpose of going up against his peak self as a returner (due to disguise and +1 abilities), and did literally everything (besides FH power-based ballstriking) else better; and then he was a better server and all-courter than Hewitt, by bigger and more important margins than all the other stuff (since you already, presumably, similarly grant Roddick making it close with Hewitt, on the basis of just his serve + FH advantage)

Why must all of this be true? I strongly doubt that it is, or else strange conclusions might follow like 2014 WB Wawrinka & 2017 WB Berdych > peak Roddick. Also, if you grant 2015 WB Federer > 2004 WB Roddick, then since Djokovic beat Federer by a higher margin in 2015 than Federer beat Roddick in 2004, it may also follow that 2015 WB Djokovic > 2004 WB Federer, which I don't buy.
 
The same Borg who has a 6-2 h2h against Laver, never lost a bo5 match to and only lost to when he was barely 18? You sure we are talking about the same Borg?
the one who was 4-2 by 19 (Laver 37), with:

outdoor hard: 1 straight set L, 1 7-6 in the 3rd W
carpet: 1 straight set W, 1 6-2 in the 5th W
green clay: 1 straight set L, 1 6-2 in the 3rd W

so clearly he wasn't stomping in 3/5 conditions (missing grass and red clay matches) by virtue of age advantage and physicality, despite having an even bigger age gap, and a more youth-favoring and less-longevity-favoring era
Not quite fair given that the Murray loss was injury-related; that 2012/15 Cincy Federer >>> 2023 Cincy Alcaraz; and that peak HC masters Isner is no joke, might well be > 2023 Cincy Alcaraz as well (considering also Karl literally had to save MP vs HuHu in SF). The Boredo loss was bad of course, wasn't Djokovic on a honeymoon or something at the time?
but the point is about Djokovic's level, not his superior competition. he was plenty capable of playing poorly in Cinci in his prime, so his poor '23 performance doesn't even out with Alcaraz's poor one in his pre-prime (especially since we now have Alcaraz's '25 run as a near-prime point of comparison, with even the Rublev tussle being more reasonable than the Monfils, Dolgopolov, and Simon tussles). that said, good on Djokovic for fighting and winning the close match
Why must all of this be true? I strongly doubt that it is, or else strange conclusions might follow like 2014 WB Wawrinka & 2017 WB Berdych > peak Roddick. Also, if you grant 2015 WB Federer > 2004 WB Roddick, then since Djokovic beat Federer by a higher margin in 2015 than Federer beat Roddick in 2004, it may also follow that 2015 WB Djokovic > 2004 WB Federer, which I don't buy.
1. don't see how unclose Berdych match is at all relevant
2. i'm talking about capacity to peak within a match, not just full tournament run average, so a match where Federer was a bit off on 1st return and Wawrinka played above himself still allows for peaks ordered like '04 Federer > '14 Djokovic, '04 Roddick, '14 Federer > '14 Wawrinka
3. don't think the margins of victory (+ relative matchups) imply peaks ordered like '15 Djokovic > '04 Federer > '15 Federer, '04 Roddick (grouped for sake of argument, you can ofc put both the '15ers lower). i would say they make that case arguable, and the counter-argument would lie in an appeal to '04 Federer coasting/having a higher peak that was un(der)expressed vs Roddick in practice, which i think is likewise arguable on the basis of his baselining strategy and serving.
I suggest that you watch Berdych's matches against Nadal like 2006 Madrid Indoor and the 2012 Australian Open.
you need to make an actual case for what you said, not just point to 2 matches in a whole career
 
you need to make an actual case for what you said, not just point to 2 matches in a whole career
Like majors won and that sort of thing? Berdych hit very flat so made more errors. Sinner hits with more topspin (meaning more consistency) and he moves better laterally.

Sinner also doesn't have the big 4 in the way, of course.
 
the one who was 4-2 by 19 (Laver 37), with:

outdoor hard: 1 straight set L, 1 7-6 in the 3rd W
carpet: 1 straight set W, 1 6-2 in the 5th W
green clay: 1 straight set L, 1 6-2 in the 3rd W

so clearly he wasn't stomping in 3/5 conditions (missing grass and red clay matches) by virtue of age advantage and physicality, despite having an even bigger age gap, and a more youth-favoring and less-longevity-favoring era
Smash's argument is too extreme perhaps, but, to be fair, 17/18 is not at all the same as 20/21 in terms of development (taken all together: physical, mental, technical).
Borg's two losses against Laver occurred when Borg was 17 and Laver 35 - surely Borg was further removed from his prime yet, given that Laver was still doing quite well at the time (he just didn't play much outside of WCT).
The classic WCT Finals semi - 18 year-old Borg beating 36-year-old Laver in five tight sets - maybe had Borg with a modest advantage (which he converted into a 6-2 5th set), don't think we should fault him for not winning easier at 18. Fitting that match marked the end of Laver as a contender for any top titles; he played the USO clay season later that year and did okay but was not a contender for anything, then played an increasingly abbreviated schedule with increasingly worse results for a few years before quietly retiring.
Their USO 75 4R was actually a BO5 four-setter, ATP database is missing the first set score, which was 6-1. 6-1 6-4 2-6 6-2 is a perfectly fine scoreline, relaxing a while when two sets up is no problem if you win the fourth comfortably anyway.
That 6-2 6-7 7-6 win on HC in 1976 is the one that looks questionable in terms of 'how come it was that close?' Borg lost the next match to Connors 6-4 6-1... generally looks like he wasn't that great in the first half of 1976, deep runs but not much title-winning and most losses were meh, all the way to losing RG QF to Panatta. The no-sets-dropped Wimbledon must have been quite a surprise, in retrospect one may say that was the event that started Borg's prime.
The last two wins over heavily declined Laver were unproblematic straight-setters of course, sure not routs but no need for Borg to go all out when he wins comfortably anyway, so nothing wrong here...

but the point is about Djokovic's level, not his superior competition. he was plenty capable of playing poorly in Cinci in his prime, so his poor '23 performance doesn't even out with Alcaraz's poor one in his pre-prime (especially since we now have Alcaraz's '25 run as a near-prime point of comparison, with even the Rublev tussle being more reasonable than the Monfils, Dolgopolov, and Simon tussles). that said, good on Djokovic for fighting and winning the close match
Sure, Djokovic never showed a historically great peak level in Cincinnati, still overall I'm taking prime Djokovic over 2023 Cinciraz clearly, who wasn't historically great at all.

1. don't see how unclose Berdych match is at all relevant
Two tiebreaks though. First set wasn't close (and wouldn't've ended in TB had Fred not choked serving for it, albeit under some pressure), but the second legitimately was, as was early 3rd set till Federer saved double BP (famously with refined serving) then broke and held comfortably till the end of set/match. So old past-prime Berdych did play that Federer close for 1.5 sets, what it tells us?
2. i'm talking about capacity to peak within a match, not just full tournament run average, so a match where Federer was a bit off on 1st return and Wawrinka played above himself still allows for peaks ordered like '04 Federer > '14 Djokovic, '04 Roddick, '14 Federer > '14 Wawrinka
3. don't think the margins of victory (+ relative matchups) imply peaks ordered like '15 Djokovic > '04 Federer > '15 Federer, '04 Roddick (grouped for sake of argument, you can ofc put both the '15ers lower). i would say they make that case arguable, and the counter-argument would lie in an appeal to '04 Federer coasting/having a higher peak that was un(der)expressed vs Roddick in practice, which i think is likewise arguable on the basis of his baselining strategy and serving.
So looks like the view you're offering is still problematic if you're driven to conclude from it that Roddick was able to push Federer thanks to Federer underperforming... this is the pathway that opens up arguments to the effect of Federer actually being an overrated fraud and stuff.
 
Borg's two losses against Laver occurred when Borg was 17 and Laver 35 - surely Borg was further removed from his prime yet, given that Laver was still doing quite well at the time (he just didn't play much outside of WCT).
agreed, but Borg was certainly within striking distance of Laver (79.5% vs 81.8% WL for '74), and Borg winning RG '74 (a mere month later than the April losses) with all those dropped sets, was quite a display of physicality. that's pretty similar to the case with Alcaraz-Djokovic in '23, with USO '22 as Alcaraz's proof of physicality. so the initial premises of the importance of physicality in proximity to prime form and thus h2h with older players, are still faulty.

now Olympics '24 and AO '25 are the more reasonably objectionable losses from the prime framing, but i would somewhat call into question the utility of that framing, via Nat and helter
The classic WCT Finals semi - 18 year-old Borg beating 36-year-old Laver in five tight sets - maybe had Borg with a modest advantage (which he converted into a 6-2 5th set), don't think we should fault him for not winning easier at 18.
The last two wins over heavily declined Laver were unproblematic straight-setters of course, sure not routs but no need for Borg to go all out when he wins comfortably anyway, so nothing wrong here...
The no-sets-dropped Wimbledon must have been quite a surprise, in retrospect one may say that was the event that started Borg's prime.
agreed
Their USO 75 4R was actually a BO5 four-setter, ATP database is missing the first set score, which was 6-1
ah, forgot the bo3 didn't extend to R16, so didn't catch that in TA
That 6-2 6-7 7-6 win on HC in 1976 is the one that looks questionable in terms of 'how come it was that close?
yep that's the one with a legit ? imo, and it's just explained by form. not some permanent mark of shame
 
So old past-prime Berdych did play that Federer close for 1.5 sets, what it tells us?
not much, considering it was 1.5 sets and so doesn't constitute a close match
if you're driven to conclude from it that Roddick was able to push Federer thanks to Federer underperforming... this is the pathway that opens up arguments to the effect of Federer actually being an overrated fraud and stuff.
1. i think e.g. Djokovic-Wawrinka h2h was underperforming but Djokovic != overrated fraud, so don't see where the issue is
2. i think that Federer getting pushed by Roddick in 3 or even 4 of those sets was a clear underperformance precisely because of how certain i am in his grass GOATness. don't buy Roddick's level being so high or unstoppable as to have done that primarily through his own efforts
 
agreed, but Borg was certainly within striking distance of Laver (79.5% vs 81.8% WL for '74), and Borg winning RG '74 (a mere month later than the April losses) with all those dropped sets, was quite a display of physicality. that's pretty similar to the case with Alcaraz-Djokovic in '23, with USO '22 as Alcaraz's proof of physicality. so the initial premises of the importance of physicality in proximity to prime form and thus h2h with older players, are still faulty.

now Olympics '24 and AO '25 are the more reasonably objectionable losses from the prime framing, but i would somewhat call into question the utility of that framing, via Nat and helter
Physicality means a lot but not quite everything especially when there are still meaningful improvements to make in various areas for a very young player, I do acknowledge that. The manner of those losses on Alc's part was certainly problematic, but you can say that's not Djokovic-specific - neither mugging up masters matches nor losing indoors nor even cramping in slam semis (lel) is exclusive to the Djokovic H2H for Karl now; it simply reflects the general reality that he's not as goaty as some would like to believe. Looks like Alcaraz isn't actually going to become unbeatable, so no undisputed goatness for him no matter how much he ends up winning, really.
 
not much, considering it was 1.5 sets and so doesn't constitute a close match
Surely peak Roddick was considerably better than past-prime Birdie though.

1. i think e.g. Djokovic-Wawrinka h2h was underperforming but Djokovic != overrated fraud, so don't see where the issue is
It clearly hurts Djokovic's goat case considerably (in the eyes of refined connoisseurs like Fedfans, anyway) that he struggled with Stan so much in slams, doesn't it? In that context, Djokovic is both overrated (for being widely declared goat when he's not) and a fraud for weak-era'ing his way to being overrated like that.

2. i think that Federer getting pushed by Roddick in 3 or even 4 of those sets was a clear underperformance precisely because of how certain i am in his grass GOATness. don't buy Roddick's level being so high or unstoppable as to have done that primarily through his own efforts

Eh, it's grass, big game built upon big serve can trouble anyone. Do you really think Sampras underperformed to be pushed to five sets by Ivanisevic in 1995? A bit at worst imo, Goran was super good for large parts of the match (also wasn't for some parts, which cost him - the difference between grassgoat and grass atg-lite, even at the latter's peak). The same vibe applies to 2004 - admittedly the second set wasn't that great I think, which is reflected in the number of breaks at 5 total (Roddick faltered quite notably to go down a double break and Federer really shouldn't have lost that lead even if Andy played some good stuff). First and third sets I recall Roddick was very good though, not much underperformance on Federer's part (you can always some lesser fault, nobody's perfect). Early 4th set was exciting but I suppose not that great holistically quality-wise as Roddick had the upper hand over a kinda uncertain Federer and missed all 6 BPs, some with disappointing attacking errors, then played a somewhat iffy game to get broken - to be clear, play was in no way poor but not goaty either. Then Fed just held serve firmly to victory. I don't feel that it'd be correct to claim Federer's overall performance was unbecoming of orime grassgoat, other than losing the double break lead in set 2, which sticks out, although it didn't cost him.
 
Surely peak Roddick was considerably better than past-prime Birdie though.
right, and so he was able to play a better Federer close for somewhere between 2.5-4 sets depending on how you evaluate and slice? i still don't get the point for comparison's sake
It clearly hurts Djokovic's goat case considerably (in the eyes of refined connoisseurs like Fedfans, anyway) that he struggled with Stan so much in slams, doesn't it? In that context, Djokovic is both overrated (for being widely declared goat when he's not) and a fraud for weak-era'ing his way to being overrated like that.
i think the Wawrinka h2h is disappointing, but i don't really think it's very convincing evidence for him being an overrated fraud. the fraud part (to whatever extent one wants to argue it) has to do with how he got his numbers, and the overrated (ditto) part has to do with things like his various peaks, his condition versatility, his technical completeness - specific game-related critiques. the most you can really say is that Djokovic choked 2 Slams away and had a bad matchup due to his mid +1, but that's not really relevant to the foundational elements of Djokovic's GOATness (besides mental strength i suppose)
Eh, it's grass, big game built upon big serve can trouble anyone
you're stealing what i said about Federer-Sampras >: (
Do you really think Sampras underperformed to be pushed to five sets by Ivanisevic in 1995?
yeah, could have serve-returned better overall, esp in the sets he lost
I don't feel that it'd be correct to claim Federer's overall performance was unbecoming of orime grassgoat
should we not expect Federer to have explicitly GOATed in a Wimbly F in his peak years against a good matchup, in the same way that you expected Djokovic to play better than merely acceptable (if that) tennis to win Slams vs mugs in his post-prime?
 
right, and so he was able to play a better Federer close for somewhere between 2.5-4 sets depending on how you evaluate and slice? i still don't get the point for comparison's sake
2004 Federer being clearly better than 2017 (all 2013+) Federer at Wimbledon is the point.

i think the Wawrinka h2h is disappointing, but i don't really think it's very convincing evidence for him being an overrated fraud. the fraud part (to whatever extent one wants to argue it) has to do with how he got his numbers, and the overrated (ditto) part has to do with things like his various peaks, his condition versatility, his technical completeness - specific game-related critiques. the most you can really say is that Djokovic choked 2 Slams away and had a bad matchup due to his mid +1, but that's not really relevant to the foundational elements of Djokovic's GOATness (besides mental strength i suppose)
It's a significant contributor to Djokovic's prime slam performance simply not being in Federer's league, good as it was still; and that's a significant contributor to the argument that Djokovic actually isn't as good a player as Federer.

you're stealing what i said about Federer-Sampras >: (
It's a basic truism anyone knows, no stealing required or intended, lol
yeah, could have serve-returned better overall, esp in the sets he lost

should we not expect Federer to have explicitly GOATed in a Wimbly F in his peak years against a good matchup, in the same way that you expected Djokovic to play better than merely acceptable (if that) tennis to win Slams vs mugs in his post-prime?

That seems unrealistic, in that anything short of near-perfection is branded underperformance. I would think those efforts were within normal variation for grassgoat standards and no significant fault should be found for Federer apart from losing the double break lead in the second set. Roddick was actually quite good, even though many struggle to believe it.

If you're pointing to Djokovic's old age performances catching criticism, from my perspective the core criticism remains the level of tennis itself even when he was dominant, as I'm just wary to trust it. Think of the fresh IW final: it was a fairly enjoyable match with no significant lulls from either player for me to criticise - credit to Medvedev, I thought he was done as a top player, but that was a surprisingly prime level performance on his part, and if he can keep it up he should be back in contention for the best of the rest behind Sinraz - but based on the quality of their shots, it was respectable but wouldn't quite stand up to actual prime ATG standards, you know. Sinner was often shortballing unduly and his rally tolerance was kinda lacking, while Medvedev had trouble returning (Sinner served well but 50+% of 1st serves not coming back is too much) and his net play remained a weak point for Sinner to exploit, plus, much as he commendably pushed himself to be aggressive off the FH side, it still wasn't a consistent force.

Obviously, everyone has weaknesses, but on the balance I think Sinner's game isn't quite up at the very top, and that goes for Oldovic too. Meanwhile, a match like the 2004 WB final had some weaker moments, but the overall quality of ballstriking was superior enough that I would take it as better by some margin.
 
2004 Federer being clearly better than 2017 (all 2013+) Federer at Wimbledon is the point.
even if we just turn off our brains and do close set power scaling

'17 Berdych got 1.5 close sets vs '17 Federer
'17 Federer ~= '14/'15 Federer
in question: '14/'15 Federer >= '04 Roddick
'04 Roddick got 2.5 close sets vs '04 Federer (i.e. on own level, barring Federer's double break lapse)
suppose for argument that '14 Federer gets 3 close sets vs '04 Federer
'17 Berdych gets 0.5-1 close set vs '04 Federer
'10 Berdych gets 1-2 close sets vs '04 Federer

is this objectionable at all? am i missing something?
Djokovic's prime slam performance simply not being in Federer's league, good as it was still; and that's a significant contributor to the argument that Djokovic actually isn't as good a player as Federer.
but that's the case with or without the Wawrinka losses, and is the case for every non-Federer GOAT. meanwhile, prime Federer's Wimbly performances, with or without Roddick '04, are in another league from everybody besides prime Sampras and Borg. my point is that these individual matches don't move the needle much on their own and so don't need to/shouldn't be scrutinized so much in any direction
It's a basic truism anyone knows, no stealing required or intended, lol
right, but that was a pretty analogous convo, and there also you were worried about the Implications for peak and prime Federer. why do you have an issue with Federer not maximizing his peak vs '04 Roddick, while also having actively disagreed with '01 Federer peaking vs '01 post-prime Sampras, given that Sampras in general > Roddick (so that the former playing less well than usual would stick out as much as the latter playing better than usual, even if their levels are largely comparable)
That seems unrealistic, in that anything short of near-perfection is branded underperformance.
Sinner was often shortballing unduly and his rally tolerance was kinda lacking, while Medvedev had trouble returning (Sinner served well but 50+% of 1st serves not coming back is too much) and his net play remained a weak point for Sinner to exploit, plus, much as he commendably pushed himself to be aggressive off the FH side, it still wasn't a consistent force.
wouldn't quite stand up to actual prime ATG standards
is this not just mythology at this point? i see no reason to believe that '04 Roddick's weaknesses, of the kind that you laid out for Sinvedev IW '26 F, were not at least as present when he held up admirably to '04 Federer, and i don't see how his ballstriking makes up for that (unless you improperly weight that as part of his baselining abilities, esp in a comparison to prime Sinner and primeish Medvedev). like yeah i think a GOAT in their highly-praised peak years, not being perfect against their pigeon, is an underperformance, especially when i can see repeated middle-of-the-court service-box-deep rallies in that 2nd set mug period
 
even if we just turn off our brains and do close set power scaling

'17 Berdych got 1.5 close sets vs '17 Federer
'17 Federer ~= '14/'15 Federer
in question: '14/'15 Federer >= '04 Roddick
'04 Roddick got 2.5 close sets vs '04 Federer (i.e. on own level, barring Federer's double break lapse)
suppose for argument that '14 Federer gets 3 close sets vs '04 Federer
'17 Berdych gets 0.5-1 close set vs '04 Federer
'10 Berdych gets 1-2 close sets vs '04 Federer

is this objectionable at all? am i missing something?

2014 Federer was completely useless on return vs Djokovic until Joe started shaking, I don't think peak Fed would struggle.

but that's the case with or without the Wawrinka losses, and is the case for every non-Federer GOAT. meanwhile, prime Federer's Wimbly performances, with or without Roddick '04, are in another league from everybody besides prime Sampras and Borg. my point is that these individual matches don't move the needle much on their own and so don't need to/shouldn't be scrutinized so much in any direction

right, but that was a pretty analogous convo, and there also you were worried about the Implications for peak and prime Federer. why do you have an issue with Federer not maximizing his peak vs '04 Roddick, while also having actively disagreed with '01 Federer peaking vs '01 post-prime Sampras, given that Sampras in general > Roddick (so that the former playing less well than usual would stick out as much as the latter playing better than usual, even if their levels are largely comparable)

I mean, if you're using 'underperforming' to mean performing below one's average level at the time, then everyone underperforms regularly, as guaranteed by math. But I suppose it is usually meant to refer to performing below the accepted range of variance (centered on said average), which I don't think was the case, barring the 2nd set double break lead loss at least. Federer may have been below his personal grass average at the time, but not criminally so, while Roddick was significantly above his average. 01 Federer performbed above his average *at the time*, no way he can compare to 04 Federer although could give some trouble. Sampras served great, which makes for a close scoreline in any case, but didn't return too well and lacked confidence on crucial points.

is this not just mythology at this point? i see no reason to believe that '04 Roddick's weaknesses, of the kind that you laid out for Sinvedev IW '26 F, were not at least as present when he held up admirably to '04 Federer, and i don't see how his ballstriking makes up for that (unless you improperly weight that as part of his baselining abilities, esp in a comparison to prime Sinner and primeish Medvedev). like yeah i think a GOAT in their highly-praised peak years, not being perfect against their pigeon, is an underperformance, especially when i can see repeated middle-of-the-court service-box-deep rallies in that 2nd set mug period

Perhaps Federer utterly pigeonising Roddick is a function of his goatness? :D I certainly don't expect Djokodal would've done it to such an extent (clear H2H advantage obviously, but not to the point of almost never losing).
Would need to rewatch some footage to comment more on quality, I guess.
 
2014 Federer was completely useless on return vs Djokovic until Joe started shaking, I don't think peak Fed would struggle.
set 2? and in set 4, not sure if you pinpoint shakes to 5-5 or even earlier, because games 5, 7, and 9 were all good from Federer
Federer may have been below his personal grass average at the time, but not criminally so, while Roddick was significantly above his average
i think Federer's serve and FH aggression was quite a bit below par, and that allowed Roddick into the match
Perhaps Federer utterly pigeonising Roddick is a function of his goatness?
if nullifying the other person's strengths and getting away with areas of weakness are functions of GOATness, then was Djokovic ultra-pigeonizing ATG serve+1er Tsonga a function of his GOATness? or was it a matchup issue?
I certainly don't expect Djokodal would've done it to such an extent
i don't think prime Federer would have pigeonized prime Nishikori to the same extent as prime Djokovic did! but i don't really care about that
 
set 2? and in set 4, not sure if you pinpoint shakes to 5-5 or even earlier, because games 5, 7, and 9 were all good from Federer
set 2 featuring Federer managing 1 single BP courtesy of Djokovic missing a third ball FH at 30-30, right

i think Federer's serve and FH aggression was quite a bit below par, and that allowed Roddick into the match
How does this work? Federer was only broken twice in so many games, there's no way that could count as 'quite a bit below par' on serve in any way. You could reasonably find fault with Federer's return game there, but not his serve lol.

if nullifying the other person's strengths and getting away with areas of weakness are functions of GOATness, then was Djokovic ultra-pigeonizing ATG serve+1er Tsonga a function of his GOATness? or was it a matchup issue?
Tsonga is an ATG serve+1er, really? I don't think he was ever consistent enough to qualify. His peak was high but rare. Djokovic is 3-0 against peak Tsonga in slams anyway, but those were decently competitive matches even though two of them featured Djokovic in peak form himself (AO 08, WB 11), and the third had him escape match points (RG 12). Non-peak Tsonga was indeed no match for prime Djokovic, I don't think much would change against prime Federer.


i don't think prime Federer would have pigeonized prime Nishikori to the same extent as prime Djokovic did! but i don't really care about that
Lol, why? Are you basing this on past-prime Federer losing some matches to him? Pure kek. Djokovic had already failed back when he managed to lose to Nishikori in a slam in the midst of his prime, that he won their next 20 matches cannot erase that.
 
set 2 featuring Federer managing 1 single BP courtesy of Djokovic missing a third ball FH at 30-30, right
Federer vs Nadal at Wimbly '06: only got 2 BPs in set 2 thanks to Nadal donating 3 UEs in each game, and got 0 BPs in set 3. peak Federer useless on return for half of a Wimbly F against an even worse server, what it tells us?
How does this work? Federer was only broken twice in so many games, there's no way that could count as 'quite a bit below par' on serve in any way. You could reasonably find fault with Federer's return game there, but not his serve lol.
i think Federer only managing 70.9% 1st SPW (and that's after tossing out those 2 games in the 2nd set), is pretty obviously bad vs Roddick? no matter how well Roddick returned (which was elite at minimum fwiw), he wasn't athletically and technically capable of keeping Federer to his 4th worst 1st SPW performance at Wimbly in the entire '03-'19 span, on his own merit... leaving those 2 games in, it would be Federer's absolute worst... meanwhile Federer kept Roddick to his 6th worst 1st SPW performance at Wimbly between '03-'09, and Federer obviously had those abilities, so we can safely give him credit for his returning...
Tsonga is an ATG serve+1er, really?
not sure what else you'd call a top 10-15 (depending on conditions) 1st SPW player in the poly era, considering everybody above him was a bot or Federer. also that's certainly how Tsonga managed all of his most signature Slam performances (AO '08, Wimbly '11, RG '12)
Non-peak Tsonga was indeed no match for prime Djokovic, I don't think much would change against prime Federer.
he would have closer matches and could get more than 1 win in a comparable timespan, especially considering he already beat a decent prime Federer once while not peaking
Lol, why? Are you basing this on past-prime Federer losing some matches to him?
i'm basing it on Djokovic having the better return for dealing with the likes of Nishikori, along with his rally tolerance, counterpunching, and defense. i think if Davydenko could beat prime Federer a couple of times and push him hard in a couple Slams, Nishikori could get close to the same just by not choking as much
Djokovic had already failed back when he managed to lose to Nishikori in a slam in the midst of his prime, that he won their next 20 matches cannot erase that.
Federer pigeonized Safin regardless of AO '05
 
This thread will be a direct a comparison between the big 3's first 5 full seasons on tour and Carlos Alcaraz at the same age. 3 of the 4 gentlemen were born within a month


The year they turned 18​

'99 Federer : 13–17 | Titles: 0 | YE rank: 64
Slams: AO(Q1), FO(1R), W(1R), USO(Q2)
Masters: IW(A), Miami(1R), Monte Carlo(1R), Madrid(1R), Rome(A), Canada(1R), Cincinnati(1R), Shanghai(2R), Paris(1R)

'04 Nadal : 30–17 | Titles: 1 | YE rank: 51
Slams: AO(3R), FO(A), W(A), USO(2R)
Masters: IW(3R), Miami(4R), Monte Carlo(A), Madrid(A), Rome(A), Canada(1R), Cincinnati(1R), Shanghai(2R), Paris(A)

'05 Djokovic : 11–11 | Titles: 0 | YE rank: 78
Slams: AO(1R), FO(2R), W(3R), USO(3R)
Masters: IW(A), Miami(A), Monte Carlo(A), Madrid(A), Rome(A), Canada(Q2), Cincinnati(1R), Shanghai(Q1), Paris(3R)

'21 Alcaraz : 32–17 | Titles: 1 | YE rank: 32
Slams: AO(2R), FO(3R), W(2R), USO(QF)
Masters: IW(2R), Miami(1R), Monte Carlo(A), Madrid(2R), Rome(A), Canada(A), Cincinnati(1R), Shanghai(NH), Paris(3R)

Verdict (18): Alcaraz > Nadal > Djokovic > Federer
At 18, Federer and Djokovic were still finding their feet on tour ,barely winning a match at slams, struggling to crack the top 50. Nadal was already a force on clay, winning his first title and pushing his win-loss record above .500. But Alcaraz edges him here: slightly better record, a quarterfinal run at the US Open (beating Tsitsipas along the way), and a higher year-end ranking. Both won 1 title, but Carlos did it on hard court, which at that age is arguably more impressive for an all-surface future.


The year they turned 19​

'00 Federer : 36–30 | Titles: 0 | YE rank: 29
Slams: AO(3R), FO(4R), W(1R), USO(3R)
Masters: IW(Q1), Miami(2R), Monte Carlo(1R), Madrid(1R), Rome(1R), Canada(1R), Cincinnati(1R), Shanghai(2R), Paris(1R)

'05 Nadal : 79–10 | 1 slam | Titles: 11 | YE rank: 2
Slams: AO(4R), FO(W), W(2R), USO(3R)
Masters: IW(A), Miami(F), Monte Carlo(W), Madrid(A), Rome(W), Canada(W), Cincinnati(1R), Shanghai(W), Paris(A)

'06 Djokovic : 40–18 | Titles: 2 | YE rank: 16
Slams: AO(1R), FO(QF), W(4R), USO(3R)
Masters: IW(1R), Miami(2R), Monte Carlo(1R), Madrid(2R), Rome(Q2), Canada(A), Cincinnati(2R), Shanghai(QF), Paris(2R)

'22 Alcaraz : 57–13 | 1 slam | Titles: 5 | YE rank: 1
Slams: AO(3R), FO(QF), W(4R), USO(W)
Masters: IW(SF), Miami(W), Monte Carlo(2R), Madrid(W), Rome(A), Canada(2R), Cincinnati(QF), Shanghai(4R), Paris(QF)

Verdict (19): Nadal > Alcaraz > Djokovic > Federer
This is where Nadal announces himself as a once-in-a-generation talent. A staggering 79–10 record, 11 titles including his first Roland Garros, and 4 Masters (Monte Carlo, Rome, Canada, Shanghai) plus a Miami final. He finishes world #2 behind only peak Federer. Alcaraz has a brilliant season in his own right, US Open champion, 2 Masters (Miami, Madrid), and becomes the youngest year-end #1 in history. But he can't match Nadal's sheer volume of dominance. Djokovic makes a nice leap to #16 with a French Open quarterfinal and 2 titles, while Federer finally cracks the top 30 but still has zero trophies. Nadal takes this round convincingly.


The year they turned 20​

'01 Federer : 49–21 | Titles: 1 | YE rank: 13
Slams: AO(3R), FO(QF), W(QF), USO(4R)
Masters: IW(1R), Miami(QF), Monte Carlo(QF), Madrid(1R), Rome(3R), Canada(A), Cincinnati(A), Shanghai(2R), Paris(2R)

'06 Nadal : 59–12 | 1 slam | Titles: 5 | YE rank: 2
Slams: AO(A), FO(W), W(F), USO(QF)
Masters: IW(SF), Miami(2R), Monte Carlo(W), Madrid(A), Rome(W), Canada(3R), Cincinnati(QF), Shanghai(QF), Paris(A)

'07 Djokovic : 68–19 | Titles: 5 | YE rank: 3
Slams: AO(4R), FO(SF), W(SF), USO(F)
Masters: IW(F), Miami(W), Monte Carlo(3R), Madrid(QF), Rome(QF), Canada(W), Cincinnati(2R), Shanghai(SF), Paris(2R)

'23 Alcaraz : 65–12 | 1 slam | Titles: 6 | YE rank: 2
Slams: AO(A), FO(SF), W(W), USO(SF)
Masters: IW(SF), Miami(W), Monte Carlo(2R), Madrid(W), Rome(A), Canada(2R), Cincinnati(QF), Shanghai(QF), Paris(QF)

Verdict (20): Alcaraz > Nadal > Djokovic > Federer
The gap between the top two and the rest widens. Federer wins his first title (Milan indoors) and makes his first quarterfinals at Roland Garros and Wimbledon, but he's still a clear fourth. Djokovic explodes onto the scene: 68–19, his first Masters (Miami and Canada), a US Open final, and semifinals at Roland Garros and Wimbledon. He's now world #3 and looks like a future superstar. But Nadal and Alcaraz are on another level. Both win 1 slam (Nadal on clay, Alcaraz on grass at Wimbledon) and 2 Masters. Alcaraz gets the slight edge: 6 titles to Nadal's 5, a better winning percentage (84.4% vs 83.1%), and he beats Djokovic in that legendary Wimbledon final. Carlos by a hair.


The year they turned 21​

'02 Federer : 58–22 | Titles: 3 | YE rank: 6
Slams: AO(4R), FO(1R), W(1R), USO(4R)
Masters: IW(3R), Miami(F), Monte Carlo(2R), Madrid(W), Rome(1R), Canada(1R), Cincinnati(1R), Shanghai(QF), Paris(QF)

'07 Nadal : 70–15 | 1 slam | Titles: 6 | YE rank: 2
Slams: AO(QF), FO(W), W(F), USO(4R)
Masters: IW(W), Miami(QF), Monte Carlo(W), Madrid(F), Rome(W), Canada(SF), Cincinnati(2R), Shanghai(QF), Paris(F)

'08 Djokovic : 64–17 | 1 slam | Titles: 4 | YE rank: 3 | YEC
Slams: AO(W), FO(SF), W(2R), USO(SF)
Masters: IW(W), Miami(2R), Monte Carlo(SF), Madrid(SF), Rome(W), Canada(QF), Cincinnati(F), Shanghai(3R), Paris(3R)

'24 Alcaraz : 54–13 | 2 slams | Titles: 4 | YE rank: 3
Slams: AO(QF), FO(W), W(W), USO(2R)
Masters: IW(W), Miami(SF), Monte Carlo(A), Madrid(W), Rome(3R), Canada(QF), Cincinnati(F), Shanghai(A), Paris(2R)

Verdict (21): Alcaraz > Nadal = Djokovic > Federer
This is the most competitive age yet. Let's break it down:

Federer (4th): Finally looks like a top player. Wins 3 titles (including his first Masters in Hamburg), reaches the Miami final, and finishes #6. But he's still slamless at 21, something that would change dramatically the next year.

Nadal (tied 2nd): Another rock-solid season: 6 titles, his third straight French Open, and 3 Masters (Indian Wells, Monte Carlo, Rome). He also makes the Wimbledon final (losing an epic to Federer) and the Paris Masters final. His 70–15 record is excellent. But for the first time, he doesn't win the year-end #2 (Djokovic pushes him), and he fails to win a non-clay Masters or slam.

Djokovic (tied 2nd): His breakout major season. Wins his first slam (Australian Open, beating Federer in semis and Tsonga in final), plus Indian Wells and Rome Masters. He also makes the Cincinnati final and semifinals at Roland Garros and the US Open. The YEC title (beating Davydenko in final) caps it off. His 64–17 record is slightly worse than Nadal's 70–15, but he wins the direct clash at the Australian Open and proves he can win on hard courts. The YEC gives him equal footing with Nadal this year.

Alcaraz (1st): The Channel Slam puts him over the top. Winning Roland Garros and Wimbledon back-to-back at 21 is absurd — only Borg, Nadal, Federer, and Djokovic have done it, and none that young. He adds Indian Wells and Madrid Masters, making it 4 titles total. The only blemish is a shocking 2nd-round loss at the US Open. His record (54–13) is weaker than Nadal and Djokovic, but two slams at this age trumps everything. He takes the round.


The year they turned 22​

'03 Federer : 78–17 | 1 slam | Titles: 7 | YE rank: 2
Slams: AO(4R), FO(1R), W(W), USO(4R)
Masters: IW(2R), Miami(QF), Monte Carlo(A), Madrid(3R), Rome(F), Canada(SF), Cincinnati(2R), Shanghai(SF), Paris(QF)

'08 Nadal : 82–11 | 2 slams | Titles: 8 | YE rank: 1 | Olympic Gold
Slams: AO(SF), FO(W), W(W), USO(SF)
Masters: IW(SF), Miami(F), Monte Carlo(W), Madrid(W), Rome(2R), Canada(W), Cincinnati(SF), Shanghai(SF), Paris(QF)

'09 Djokovic : 78–19 | Titles: 5 | YE rank: 3
Slams: AO(QF), FO(3R), W(QF), USO(SF)
Masters: IW(QF), Miami(F), Monte Carlo(F), Madrid(SF), Rome(F), Canada(QF), Cincinnati(F), Shanghai(SF), Paris(W)

'25 Alcaraz : 71–9 | 2 slams | Titles: 8 | YE rank: 1
Slams: AO(QF), FO(W), W(F), USO(W)
Masters: IW(2R) Miami(QF), Monte Carlo(W), Madrid(QF), Rome(W), Canada(A), Cincinnati(W), Shanghai(A), Paris(2R)

Verdict (22): Nadal = Alcaraz > Federer > Djokovic
We're getting to the juicy part everyone is very close to their primes now !

Djokovic (4th): Step back year of sorts for Novak, he reaches the final in Miami, Monte Carlo, Rome, Cincinnati, and Paris (winning only Paris). He also makes the semifinals at all four slams ! but loses each time. 78–19 is elite, but 0 slams and 1 Masters title at 22, compared to what Nadal and Alcaraz are doing, leaves him a clear third.

Federer (3rd): The start of his prime. Wins his first Wimbledon ! and 7 titles overall, including a Masters final in Rome and semifinals in Canada and Shanghai. He finishes #2 behind Agassi. A great season, but clearly behind the other three.

Nadal (tied 1st): The Olympic gold medalist and world #1. Wins 2 slams, He defeats Roger in that epic wimbledon final and finally grabs world n1 plus 3 Masters (Monte Carlo, Hamburg, Toronto). He also makes the Australian Open semifinal (losing to Tsonga) and US Open semifinal (losing to Murray). His 82–11 record is the best of the four.

Alcaraz (tied 1st): Started the season slowly losing in the QF in australia but went on an absolute tear once clay season started ammasing 3 masters, making 3 slam finals and winning 2 of them.

I will update this thread at the end of 2026 ! let's see if Carlos can match Roger's 04 season ! Carlos leading the way so far along with Nadal.
UPDATED : for better visualisation also Novak 08 YEC and Nadal 08 OG were added.
 
Federer vs Nadal at Wimbly '06: only got 2 BPs in set 2 thanks to Nadal donating 3 UEs in each game, and got 0 BPs in set 3. peak Federer useless on return for half of a Wimbly F against an even worse server, what it tells us?
Nadal peaked in the third set and Fred was already two sets up so could relax a bit, I don't think that matters. (Mucking up the tiebreak somewhat was a bit of a blemish but nothing else, Primerer's tiebreak record in Wimbledon late rounds was near-perfect anyway.) The second set was closer than it should've been, in fact Nadal was statistically the (slightly) better player until he failed to serve it out - takes some shine off Federer's performance maybe, but pretty much everyone else had bigger struggles than that in their best runs save Borg/Nadal at RG. The eventual break was kinda chokey from Ned but not that bad, two of the errors were against awkward Federer shots (short low slice and deep return) even if not perhaps not rushed enough to count as forced. The netted FH was routine though, and obviously poor timing to double fault, so not really good either.

i think Federer only managing 70.9% 1st SPW (and that's after tossing out those 2 games in the 2nd set), is pretty obviously bad vs Roddick? no matter how well Roddick returned (which was elite at minimum fwiw), he wasn't athletically and technically capable of keeping Federer to his 4th worst 1st SPW performance at Wimbly in the entire '03-'19 span, on his own merit... leaving those 2 games in, it would be Federer's absolute worst... meanwhile Federer kept Roddick to his 6th worst 1st SPW performance at Wimbly between '03-'09, and Federer obviously had those abilities, so we can safely give him credit for his returning...
I thought you were talking about the 09 final rather than the 04 final, my bad. I do continue to disapprove of all this talk like Roddick was some bum, he actually played impressively well for significant stretches. The smaller but also significant stretches where he didn't (particularly giving up mug breaks in sets 2&4) prevented him from pushing it to five sets. I would, however, agree that Federer overdid s&v there, which hurt his serve points won % somewhat, but then again that sort of thing usually worked against Roddick, who wasn't the sharpest returner/passer; he did perform unusually well in that regard.

not sure what else you'd call a top 10-15 (depending on conditions) 1st SPW player in the poly era, considering everybody above him was a bot or Federer. also that's certainly how Tsonga managed all of his most signature Slam performances (AO '08, Wimbly '11, RG '12)
Tsonga's overall stats might have been alright, but he lost easily rather too often and not just to Djokovic, for me to consider him deserving of "ATG serve+1" moniker.

he would have closer matches and could get more than 1 win in a comparable timespan, especially considering he already beat a decent prime Federer once while not peaking

Might be, but if all it translates to is an extra masters win, two at a stretch, which is what I think would happen, then it doesn't carry much significance in terms of career impact for Fred, does it?

i'm basing it on Djokovic having the better return for dealing with the likes of Nishikori, along with his rally tolerance, counterpunching, and defense. i think if Davydenko could beat prime Federer a couple of times and push him hard in a couple Slams, Nishikori could get close to the same just by not choking as much
Really? One, since when is Nishikori a better player than Davydenko? Two, since when is Nishikori not prone to choking? Feels like Davydenko's choking was more exposed because he was actually able to get into winning positions in sets quite often, while Nishikori was more prone to getting rekt; should that really be held as a reflection of greater fortitude?

Federer pigeonized Safin regardless of AO '05
Not on firm courts.
 
I do continue to disapprove of all this talk like Roddick was some bum
where? all i said was
don't buy Roddick's level being so high or unstoppable as to have [pushed Federer in 3-4 sets] primarily through his own efforts

if all it translates to is an extra masters win, two at a stretch, which is what I think would happen, then it doesn't carry much significance in terms of career impact for Fred, does it?
well yeah i said
i don't really care about that

One, since when is Nishikori a better player than Davydenko?
i said
Nishikori could get close to the same
where does this imply superiority?

since when is Nishikori not prone to choking?
prime Nishikori Slam chokes: vs Paire at USO '15
prime Davydenko Slam chokes: vs Federer at AO '06, Federer at RG '07, Baghdatis at Wimbly '07, Ljubicic at RG '08

bo3 record in close matches (above any reasonable points-level threshold one sets, e.g. 0.85/0.9/1 DR) is also far worse for Davydenko, but i cba to get into all that. anyway, clearly not just about Davydenko being able to play up to comp and then playing down
should that really be held as a reflection of greater fortitude?
like i said with the clutchness discussion, you can say that the trait in question shouldn't count for as much, but you can't deny the existence and relative strength of that trait
Not on firm courts.
fair enough, maybe a better example of my overall point is prime Sampras pigeonizing Chang regardless of YEC '95, or Vilas pigeonizing Mottram regardless of Hamburg '77
 
Nadal peaked in the third set and Fred was already two sets up so could relax a bit, I don't think that matters.
In that 2006 Wimbledon final, after Federer won the first set 6-0, Nadal broke Federer in the first game of the second set, and Nadal was a break up until he served for the second set at 5-4. Federer won the second set 7-6. That was the key moment for the match. Nadal did win the third set 7-6.

If I remember right about the fourth set, Federer raced out to a 5-1 lead, failed to serve it out at that time, but eventually did to win it 6-3.
 
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