Dont know if this stat has been discussed before, but how many times has each big 4 member beaten the best player in the world to win a slam title? (If they were number 1, that means beating number 2)
Federer - 5/17 or 29%
All 5 times at Wimbledon:
Wimby 2004 - def. #2 Roddick in final
Wimby 2005 - def. #2 Hewitt in semis
Wimby 2006 - def. #2 Nadal in final
Wimby 2007 - def. #2 Nadal in final
Wimby 2012 - def. #1 Djokovic in semis
Nadal - 10/14 or 71%
At least once at every major:
RG 2005 - def. #1 Federer in semis
RG 2006 - def. #1 Federer in final
RG 2007 - def. #1 Federer in final
RG 2008 - def. #1 Federer in final
Wimby 2008 - def. #1 Federer in final
AO 2009 - def. #2 Federer in final
RG 2012 - def. #1 Djokovic in final
RG 2013 - def. #1 Djokovic in semis
USO 2013 - def. #1 Djokovic in final
RG 2014 - def. #2 Djokovic in final
Djokovic - 4/6 or 67%
AO 2008 - def. #1 Federer in semis
Wimby 2011 - def. #1 Nadal in final
USO 2011 - def. #2 Nadal in final
AO 2012 - def. #2 Nadal in final
Murray - 1/2 or 50%
Wimby 2013 - def. #1 Djokovic in final
I know a lot of people will say it means nothing, but it is definitely interesting that Federer hasn't had to go through the best (or second best) player in the world in 12 of his 17 slam titles and has NEVER had to outside of wimbledon. Even worse, he has only done it 3 times in finals (the same number as Djokovic and only 1 more than Murray). I think it just speaks to the time period in which Fed was gathering most of his slams when the number 2 (Nadal) was not consistent off clay, yet continued to hold the number 2 position for 3 years.
Nadal, on the other hand, has done it at every slam (and in the final as well). Djokovic has done it at 3 of the slams. Federer has only done it at 1 and his 29% just does not compare to the other guys.
Do all of Fed's slams count? Of course. I'm not arguing that. Just speaking to the level of consistency from other players during his slam wins.
Federer - 5/17 or 29%
All 5 times at Wimbledon:
Wimby 2004 - def. #2 Roddick in final
Wimby 2005 - def. #2 Hewitt in semis
Wimby 2006 - def. #2 Nadal in final
Wimby 2007 - def. #2 Nadal in final
Wimby 2012 - def. #1 Djokovic in semis
Nadal - 10/14 or 71%
At least once at every major:
RG 2005 - def. #1 Federer in semis
RG 2006 - def. #1 Federer in final
RG 2007 - def. #1 Federer in final
RG 2008 - def. #1 Federer in final
Wimby 2008 - def. #1 Federer in final
AO 2009 - def. #2 Federer in final
RG 2012 - def. #1 Djokovic in final
RG 2013 - def. #1 Djokovic in semis
USO 2013 - def. #1 Djokovic in final
RG 2014 - def. #2 Djokovic in final
Djokovic - 4/6 or 67%
AO 2008 - def. #1 Federer in semis
Wimby 2011 - def. #1 Nadal in final
USO 2011 - def. #2 Nadal in final
AO 2012 - def. #2 Nadal in final
Murray - 1/2 or 50%
Wimby 2013 - def. #1 Djokovic in final
I know a lot of people will say it means nothing, but it is definitely interesting that Federer hasn't had to go through the best (or second best) player in the world in 12 of his 17 slam titles and has NEVER had to outside of wimbledon. Even worse, he has only done it 3 times in finals (the same number as Djokovic and only 1 more than Murray). I think it just speaks to the time period in which Fed was gathering most of his slams when the number 2 (Nadal) was not consistent off clay, yet continued to hold the number 2 position for 3 years.
Nadal, on the other hand, has done it at every slam (and in the final as well). Djokovic has done it at 3 of the slams. Federer has only done it at 1 and his 29% just does not compare to the other guys.
Do all of Fed's slams count? Of course. I'm not arguing that. Just speaking to the level of consistency from other players during his slam wins.
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