How exactly does he get away with 1/2 volleying a one hander that's even better than Agassi's? It's unbelievable. Even Hewitt was saying that Fed is unbelieveable. That's coming from the #2 player (right now) in the world. How exactly does he get away with it? I can understand the FH side. He comes in at the ball relatively flat and hits through the ball but his BH side looks just like any other great one hander. What do you guys think? I'm just amazed. BB, maybe you can explain it a bit. You know a lot more about this than I do.