Because you are speaking about hypotheticals that rely on too many variables - it’s a fool’s errand. I will discuss what actually happened.
Roddick, like Murray, had the misfortune of facing GOAT-level competition in the majority of his GS finals. However, Murray broke through against his GOAT nemesis in two of those finals - Roddick did not.
And why did Murray have the capacity to do this? Because he got there more often owing to a higher base (and peak) level of play.
Murray made 10 consecutive QFs or better at Wimbledon. The only two others to do this are Federer and Jimmy Connors. Why do you think that was? Why couldn’t Roddick do this?
If you believe the answer is “Murray has a higher floor, Roddick a higher ceiling” (which I would strongly contest) then how far do you take it? Is Rosol a better player than Murray because of his 2012 “peak” level at Wimbledon…?
Let’s talk facts:
- Murray actually defeated Federer in a Bo5 final on grass while Roger was fresh off a title win that summer.
- A pre-Lendl Murray is 2-1 vs Roddick on grass.
- Murray defeated a previous Wimbledon champion to win his first title at SW19, and someone who’d go on to be arguably the 2nd/3rd best male player in the competition’s history.
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Based on what we know in objective reality, Murray posted a very high level on grass - beyond Roddick’s in my view.
Murray might well have a higher level than Thomas Johansson at the AO? Should we push Murray’s birthday back to 1975?
Stick to pushing the narrative that Berdych was a bigger threat to the Big 3 in slams than Murray. That’s about the measure of your analysis.