What does the closeness of the match have to do with it? Nadal barely won wimbeldon 2008 for example. He couldn't even win in 5 traditional sets and needed an extension to win. Does his win not count then? Did Djokovic win RG 2013 vs Nadal then cos it was close?Look, last year, the SF between Rafa and Djoker hinged on one point in the 5th set. It could have gone either way and Djoko was so confident that he demanded the match being completed under the roof in the best weather Wimbledon has had.
Djokovic at the time was slamless that year and playing like a mug losing in slams to Istomin and the like. He was exiting 1R in his pet tournaments. He had lost his last match to Nadal.... yet he still won so the closeness of that match is in no way an indication that nadal is close to Novak on grass at the moment or in slams. When Novak finally got into form and started winning slams he then met Nadal again in AO slam final and obliterated him in straight sets. And even Novaks beta form in wimbeldon was enough to beat Nadal. Match up wise, Nadal has lost to Novak, Novak is simply a better player one on one vs Nadal in the matchup.... now in my book 18 > 15 but Nadal fans don't think like that (or at least they didn't until Novak started crushing Nadal and leading the h2h)
My point... this idea that Nadal is really close to Novak's level at the moment and barely lost wimbeldon could have gone either way is nonsense....