Moon Shooter
Hall of Fame
I am going to be playing on a 6.5 mixed doubles team this fall. I have also been trying to put together a 3.0 men's team for next year. Actually I may actually end up trying to get 2 teams together since we don't have a league in our area. I self rated at 3.0 and I have never played usta tennis before.
Please correct me if I am wrong, but I understand that if I play 3 or more matches and my Mixed exclusive rating ends up being above 3.00 then I would be unable to play on a 3.0 men's team.
Since the ratings for men and women are completely separated how are they determining a men's and women's mixed rating?
Schmke did some analysis and based on that analysis it seems, to me, that male 3.49 teaming up with women's 2.70 will likely win against a female 3.49 and male 2.70. (schmke didn't draw this conclusion I am drawing it based on what he presented I am not sure if he would agree with my prediction) I suspect the gaps separating a male 2.7 and a male 3.49 is wider than the gap between a women's 2.7 and a women's 3.49.
Lets say my partner is a 3.01 female. And we play a 3.29 female and a 2.99 male. So they would have a combined rating of 3.15. If we barely beat them that would seem to mean I would have a performance rating of around 3.30.
If the only change from above was the opposing male had a rating of 2.70 then my performance rating would still be a 3.01 right?
Or do they try to adjust the ratings of either the male or female players to have them track the other genders rating before they do the averaging?
Any thoughts on this are appreciated.
Please correct me if I am wrong, but I understand that if I play 3 or more matches and my Mixed exclusive rating ends up being above 3.00 then I would be unable to play on a 3.0 men's team.
Since the ratings for men and women are completely separated how are they determining a men's and women's mixed rating?
Schmke did some analysis and based on that analysis it seems, to me, that male 3.49 teaming up with women's 2.70 will likely win against a female 3.49 and male 2.70. (schmke didn't draw this conclusion I am drawing it based on what he presented I am not sure if he would agree with my prediction) I suspect the gaps separating a male 2.7 and a male 3.49 is wider than the gap between a women's 2.7 and a women's 3.49.
Lets say my partner is a 3.01 female. And we play a 3.29 female and a 2.99 male. So they would have a combined rating of 3.15. If we barely beat them that would seem to mean I would have a performance rating of around 3.30.
If the only change from above was the opposing male had a rating of 2.70 then my performance rating would still be a 3.01 right?
Or do they try to adjust the ratings of either the male or female players to have them track the other genders rating before they do the averaging?
Any thoughts on this are appreciated.