christos_liaskos
Professional
They were just talking on SKY about how Rafa is playing Halle instead of Queens next year. They mentioned the 'financial' reasons as probably being the main insentive. Here's the interesting point though. They weren't actually focusing on the point of appearnce fees, rather how much the players get taxed.
I'd always known that players have to pay tax on their prize money (apart from tax exempt countries of course) but Peter Fleming actually was talking about how the players also have to play tax on the sponsorship and endorsement deals for the time they are in a particular country.
The example he was giving with Rafa was that say he has 5million a year in sponsorship, that's roughly 100,000 a week. So if Rafa decided to play Queens, and lose in the first or maybe second round (as he has done in the past due to what RG takes out of him) then he still gets taxed my the inland revenue for that weeks wages. Therefore ends up losing money that week as what he pays out in tax is way more than what he's won in prize money.
Is that the same in all countries, and has it always been like this? I suppose logically the answered would be yes. I only ask because on SKY they seemed to be suggesting that these were new tax rules taken up by the inland revenue here in the UK and that had cost us the chance of seeing Rafa next year and why he chose Halle instead. So wont Germany have the same rules?
I'd always known that players have to pay tax on their prize money (apart from tax exempt countries of course) but Peter Fleming actually was talking about how the players also have to play tax on the sponsorship and endorsement deals for the time they are in a particular country.
The example he was giving with Rafa was that say he has 5million a year in sponsorship, that's roughly 100,000 a week. So if Rafa decided to play Queens, and lose in the first or maybe second round (as he has done in the past due to what RG takes out of him) then he still gets taxed my the inland revenue for that weeks wages. Therefore ends up losing money that week as what he pays out in tax is way more than what he's won in prize money.
Is that the same in all countries, and has it always been like this? I suppose logically the answered would be yes. I only ask because on SKY they seemed to be suggesting that these were new tax rules taken up by the inland revenue here in the UK and that had cost us the chance of seeing Rafa next year and why he chose Halle instead. So wont Germany have the same rules?