^^^ look did you actually read my response? I said the points AND the slam are the evidence together.
Also, this is not "my system", it is the ATP's system.
No. It's
your system. In the ATP system, if a player has a 1630 point lead over another, he is definitely ahead of the other. The only thing the system requires is that the reader know how to count. In
your system, 1630 points can be read as 0, or even as minus 1630, if the other player has happened to win a slam. That's why I say it is
your system. It exists in your head. The ATP has no such system.
And yes, if Rafa had won Madrid, etc, etc... but this is not about if's and but's is it?
The point of the Madrid "if" was only to show that IF he had won Madrid he would have been ahead in the ATP system by a few hundred points (on clay) but he would
not have been ahead in your system, where only slams count. I have to assume this would be your position because, if you don't believe a 1630 point lead qualifies a player as having a better performance than another, then why would you think so for a much smaller lead?
I'm just saying that right now Roger Federer is the #1 clay-courter in the world due to the fact that he won Roland Garros and has the most points. How is that wrong?
It's not wrong. It is right, because of the lead in ranking points, which by the way is the
only point in your first two posts on this thread (the OP and post number 4).
Thus when someone mentioned your assessment was only a matter of opinion, you said, in post 4:
This isn't about opinions, it's about facts. Do you dispute the list? He has achieved more ranking points than Nadal on clay this year.
That's very accurate. The slam requirement is something you added only much later in the thread, when the implications of going only by ranking points where brought up and did not please you, because of course your own question can be fairly returned to you with profitable interest: '"Do you dispute that achieving 1630 more ranking points on hard courts in 2008 means that he has achieved more ranking points on hard courts in 2008?"?
If you don't dispute it, why do you think 90 points do what 1630 cannot?
Ah, because they include a slam, you will now say.
But, my dear Doctor, I have already told you many many times that
the slam's much heftier weight is already factored in the counting. If your point
now is that non-slam points should count for nothing, then why on earth did you start this thread by counting them? And why did you clearly confirm your point in your second post, as quoted above?
And thus we keep skipping and singing merrily round and round the rosies.