What is better federer 8-11 in wimbledon finals or sampras 7-0?

What is a better record in Wimbledon Finals federer 8-11 Sampras 7-0

  • 8-11

    Votes: 127 85.8%
  • 7-0

    Votes: 21 14.2%

  • Total voters
    148

Amy Foster

New User
I was wondering this Roger Federer as of 2017 is now 8-11 in Wimbledon Finals meaning 8 wins and 3 losses, Pete Sampras was 7-0 so 7 wins and no losses, what do you think is the better record.
 
Who knew it was such a difficult concept to grasp! :eek:

Lets do it like this.

One person does the lottery for $1 seven times and each time he gets the jackpot of $1,000,000 - The other times he drops his $1 dollar on the way to buying another ticket, so in essence fails to get anymore jackpots, despite the fact every time he did buy the ticket, he won.

Second person does the lottery for $1 eleven times, now three of those times he does not get the jackpot, but eight of those times he does, each jackpot being $1,000,000.

Who is the one who buys the extra mansion? :):p
 
Lets do it like this.

One person does the lottery for $1 seven times and each time he gets the jackpot of $1,000,000 - The other times he drops his $1 dollar on the way to buying another ticket, so in essence fails to get anymore jackpots, despite the fact every time he did buy the ticket, he won.

Second person does the lottery for $1 eleven times, now three of those times he does not get the jackpot, but eight of those times he does, each jackpot being $1,000,000.

Who is the one who buys the extra mansion? :):p

I like this analogy :)
 
Those numbers make zero sense. It's supposed to say 8/11 and 7/7.
Anyway, when you put it like that, it still isn't correct because you're acting like Sampras won 7 Wimb out of 7 tries. In reality he entered the tournament many more times. Those 3 final losses from Fed are like silver medals, they're not just "the amount of tries".
So really it's Fed with 8 first place trophies, and 3 second place. Sampras has got 7 first place trophies and 0 second place.
 
How is this even a debate anymore. I'd take Federer if he lost another 5 finals.

Sampras was completely useless at Wimbledon in his 30s, if he kept playing it would've been embarassing, especially if he somehow got to peak Federer.
 
this is actually a good question (for reasons i'm sure i'll get to illustrate later).

of course, the more titles the better; but 7-0 illustrates a level of dominance in finals superior to 8-3...
It's really 7/14 v/s 8/19. People can still argue Sampras has the better strike rate. But it suddenly doesn't look so dominant anymore.
 
Here's my take on it. In 11 out of 19 times at Wimbledon, Federer was one of the top 2 players there. That means he was in the top 1/128th 11 times.

Sampras was in the top 128th 7 times.

Now if we look at which one of these made it to the top 256th of everyone there:
Sampras: 7 times.
Federer: 8 times.

In which way does Federer not seem superior to Sampras here? Just because every time he was in the top 128th of all players, he was also in the top 256th of all players there that year? I've got some news for you- Sampras was worse than top 2 every single time he didn't make the final.

In 7 out of 14 (50%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Sampras was beaten before the final.
In 8 out of 19 (42%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Federer was beaten before the final.

In 6 out of 14 (43%)of appearances at Wimbledon, Sampras was beaten before the semi.
In 7 out of 19 (37%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Federer was beaten before the semi.

In 5 out of 14 (36%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Sampras did not make the quarterfinals.
In 4 out of 19 (21%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Federer did not make the quarterfinals.

Consistently, Federer has shown his ability to go further than Sampras on grass. On average, he went further at Wimbledon. He won 1 more Wimbledon than Sampras. He reached 4 more finals than Sampras. What else can he do to prove he is better than Sampras?
 
Both are very impressive. Before this past Wimbledon I would have given the nod to Sampras. Going undefeated at Wimbledon 7 times is unreal, but to win it 8 times with 11 finals is legendary
 
Here's my take on it. In 11 out of 19 times at Wimbledon, Federer was one of the top 2 players there. That means he was in the top 1/128th 11 times.

Sampras was in the top 128th 7 times.

Now if we look at which one of these made it to the top 256th of everyone there:
Sampras: 7 times.
Federer: 8 times.

In which way does Federer not seem superior to Sampras here? Just because every time he was in the top 128th of all players, he was also in the top 256th of all players there that year? I've got some news for you- Sampras was worse than top 2 every single time he didn't make the final.

In 7 out of 14 (50%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Sampras was beaten before the final.
In 8 out of 19 (42%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Federer was beaten before the final.

In 6 out of 14 (43%)of appearances at Wimbledon, Sampras was beaten before the semi.
In 7 out of 19 (37%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Federer was beaten before the semi.

In 5 out of 14 (36%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Sampras did not make the quarterfinals.
In 4 out of 19 (21%) of appearances at Wimbledon, Federer did not make the quarterfinals.

Consistently, Federer has shown his ability to go further than Sampras on grass. On average, he went further at Wimbledon. He won 1 more Wimbledon than Sampras. He reached 4 more finals than Sampras. What else can he do to prove he is better than Sampras?
Agree with everything stated here. However, still Sampras is better than Federer IN Wimbledon finals.
 
8 is always greater than 7. It's as simple as that, but if you ask who is better in finals, it is undoubtably Sampras. His stats in the finals was just unreal. Whereas, Federer had some pretty bad losses in the finals.
 
Depends on if you asked the question to VB or the Fed intelligentia

VB would say it is better to lose earlier and not in finals when you have to deliver against top notch rivals
F*ck no. Reaching a final is better than not reaching one. Winning the final is better than not winning it. Federer is better at reaching finals. Sampras is better at winning finals. End of argument
 
Those numbers make zero sense. It's supposed to say 8/11 and 7/7.
Anyway, when you put it like that, it still isn't correct because you're acting like Sampras won 7 Wimb out of 7 tries. In reality he entered the tournament many more times. Those 3 final losses from Fed are like silver medals, they're not just "the amount of tries".
So really it's Fed with 8 first place trophies, and 3 second place. Sampras has got 7 first place trophies and 0 second place.
Nailed it. Always blows my mind when I see people holding runner-up runs AGAINST a guy. Crazy.
 
F*ck no. Reaching a final is better than not reaching one. Winning the final is better than not winning it. Federer is better at reaching finals. Sampras is better at winning finals. End of argument
Although I agree, the Sampras logic is a bit misleading. "Better at winning finals" is hard to say here because Federer ended up with more wins. If Player A and Player B both reached 4 finals, where Player A won 2, but Player B won all 4, certainly Player B is better at winning finals. However, if Player B reaches 1 final and wins it but Player A reaches 10 finals, losing 1, is Player B still better at winning finals? I'd say no.

For instance- Thomas Muster reached only 1 RG final and won it. Wilander reached 5 RG finals and won 3. I think Wilander is better in RG finals, since he won an absolute 3. Muster won an absolute 1. If we went by win percentages, though, we could claim Muster was better in RG finals than Wilander.
 
I was wondering this Roger Federer as of 2017 is now 8-11 in Wimbledon Finals meaning 8 wins and 3 losses, Pete Sampras was 7-0 so 7 wins and no losses, what do you think is the better record.
Please remain consistent in how you notate wins and losses.

Most people will use 8-3 = 8 wins, 3 losses.

What boggles my mind, however, is that you used one way for Federer (8-11 means 8 wins out of 11 finals) and another way for Sampras (7-0 means 7 wins and 0 finals losses). At first glance, I thought you were implying Federer won 8 out of 19 finals appearances. Someone else might have assumed you thought Federer won 8 out of 11 finals, and Sampras miraculously won 7 out of 0 finals. 2 other players were in the final, and Sampras somehow managed to rig the match so he would win...

Rant over.
 
Although I agree, the Sampras logic is a bit misleading. "Better at winning finals" is hard to say here because Federer ended up with more wins. If Player A and Player B both reached 4 finals, where Player A won 2, but Player B won all 4, certainly Player B is better at winning finals. However, if Player B reaches 1 final and wins it but Player A reaches 10 finals, losing 1, is Player B still better at winning finals? I'd say no.

For instance- Thomas Muster reached only 1 RG final and won it. Wilander reached 5 RG finals and won 3. I think Wilander is better in RG finals, since he won an absolute 3. Muster won an absolute 1. If we went by win percentages, though, we could claim Muster was better in RG finals than Wilander.
You're naming slam champions who have only reached 1, 2, 3 finals right? Well in those cases we cannot compare those players to eachother as they have not reached enough slam finals. Look at the percentage differences between 1 slam and 11 slam. That's what? 1100% more slam finals if i'm doing maths correctly, there's no way we can compare those two players. Now look at the percentage difference between 7 and 11.. 57%. Definitely two comparable numbers.
 
You're naming slam champions who have only reached 1, 2, 3 finals right? Well in those cases we cannot compare those players to eachother as they have not reached enough slam finals. Look at the percentage differences between 1 slam and 11 slam. That's what? 1100% more slam finals if i'm doing maths correctly, there's no way we can compare those two players. Now look at the percentage difference between 7 and 11.. 57%. Definitely two comparable numbers.
Fair enough, but I'd still put my money on absolute finals than on relative final performance.
 
LMAO yes 11 finals win 8 is better then 7 finals wins 7 and lose to mugs every other time. A semi is better than a QF and so on

I’d take the extra million plus dollars a final gets you vs losing to a mug 1st round too
 
F*ck no. Reaching a final is better than not reaching one. Winning the final is better than not winning it. Federer is better at reaching finals. Sampras is better at winning finals. End of argument

So Federer gets penalised because Sampras couldn't make some finals losing to the likes of a 19yr Old nobody (at the time), some big Dutch guy or 20yr old Goran?
 
So Federer gets penalised because Sampras couldn't make some finals losing to the likes of a 19yr Old nobody (at the time), some big Dutch guy or 20yr old Goran?
Federer's final record was never better than Sampras' so you don't have a case
 
So Federer gets penalised because Sampras couldn't make some finals losing to the likes of a 19yr Old nobody (at the time), some big Dutch guy or 20yr old Goran?
Also stop making it about Federer being penalized and devalued and ****, you need to stop victimizing Federer. Federer and Sampras' careers barely overlap so they didn't affect each other much at all.
 
these types of questions shouldn't be questions really, like Tom Brady with 5 wins and 2 losses in Superbowl vs Joe Montana with 4 wins. Winning an extra one and even having two other finals needs to stop being a stigma. People are so obsessed with perfect records that fail to see the big picture of accomplishment.
"Oh no, a statistic that doesn't go Fed's way? I better try devaluing this thread by pointing out how people are 'obsessed' and shift the attention back to Fed's accomplishments"

Cut the sh*t. Sampras' perfect Wimbledon finals record is superior to that of Fed's who has 3 more losses and 1 more win. Nobody here is disputing that Federer is the better player at Wimbledon or in general, but having one more win, statistically doesn't make his final's record better.
 
Lets do it like this.

One person does the lottery for $1 seven times and each time he gets the jackpot of $1,000,000 - The other times he drops his $1 dollar on the way to buying another ticket, so in essence fails to get anymore jackpots, despite the fact every time he did buy the ticket, he won.

Second person does the lottery for $1 eleven times, now three of those times he does not get the jackpot, but eight of those times he does, each jackpot being $1,000,000.

Who is the one who buys the extra mansion? :):p
Are you a teacher by profession? If not, please be :)
 
I was wondering this Roger Federer as of 2017 is now 8-11 in Wimbledon Finals meaning 8 wins and 3 losses, Pete Sampras was 7-0 so 7 wins and no losses, what do you think is the better record.
The question "What is a better record in Wimbledon Finals federer 8-11 Sampras 7-0" - is exactly the same question as:

Which is better, 1 Wimbledon title, 3 runner-ups (Federer's next best 4 placings after his first 7 wins) versus a semi-final, a quarter final, a fourth round and a second round finish (Sampras' next best 4 placings after his 7 wins). Federer is so far ahead it isn't funny.

Slams are 7 matches not 1.
 
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I don't know and I am not bothered about what is better. I am though convinced that each of the finalist of Sampras in Courier, Ivan (2), Agassi, Washington, Pioline, and Rafter would be handled as comfortably by Fed as Pete did that. In the current grass, I feel Sampras would have also have the same 7 at least against Philipousis, Roddick (3), Nadal (3/4), and Murray. If he faces Nole as late as Fed did in 2014/15, he would be losing badly than Fed. Frankly, I don't see Pete lasting even up to 2014/15, leave alone 2017.
 
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