Tennis_Hands
Banned
1. I tried, didnt see precise definition except a vague "sustained dominance". That's more "I know when I see it" situation without a definition for what constitutes to dominance.
3.
Year 1 - player A wins all 9 Masters- gets 9000 points, player B wins 3 GS - gets 6000 points, both players lose all remaining matches, player A end as no. 1
Year 2 - player A wins nothing, player B wins 3 GS - gets 6000 points, player B end as no. 1
Year 3 - player A wins all 9 Masters- gets 9000 points, player B wins 3 GS - gets 6000 points, both players lose all remaining matches, player A end as no. 1
And so on...
Not possible? I am just taking an extreme example to test if your logic still holds. In fact Nadal's case is pretty similar.
4. Leave it then. It's up there for everyone to see your clear and understandable explanation
5. No you haven't dismantled, what you have done is bluntly call my line as arbitrary. You had indeed explained why 2003 doesnt belong to Hewitt, to which I replied why it could belong to Hewitt, to which you just called it arbitrary. That's not sound dismantling, lol
6. Ah now you get to a definition, thanksSo it can be an era if it is at least two years, and all those years have one player leading in ranking as well as number of big titles won. Well, that explains point 3. for me. But why do you think it is "the definition"? What could be wrong with my definition?
7. Fair enough.
See post number 249.
I hope that you have learned by now how to find it.
Good evening.
