dwightcharles
Rookie
Boxing and other forms of prize-fighting determine their world champion in a different way than modern pro tennis does.
I don't actually know a lot about boxing and fighting, but the title of 'world champion', which is de facto "#1" is determined by who holds the belt (or title) designated for 'world champion.' Boxers don't play 80 matches a year, or have a unifed world tour of tournaments the way tennis does. But to be the 'champ' in boxing, you have to beat the current champ in a title fight. It seems that not all fights are (or 'were,' perhaps) title fights. It would be possible to beat the champ but not get the 'world champ' title/belt if it wasn't a title fight.
I put forward that the same idea existed in tennis for many years. Now in the present day, this mentality does not predominate in tennis. In tennis we determine #1 by an agreed upon (but subjective) system of points allocation. The system is applied objectively, but it's construction is necessarily subjective. We currently have point systems that comprise the WTA and ATP computer rankings that are commonly accepted as 'fair,' but they have been tweaked several times over the years since the computer rankings began. The fact that they can be tweaked shows that the system is subjective. However once accepted, the points system is objectively and consistently applied and so it can be deemed to be 'fair.' However, we could certainly conceive of other point systems that might have different results (e.g. average points per tournament vs. best-of-18 results), maybe one that made Federer #1 for 2017, for example.
However, before the computer rankings in 1973 (1975 for the WTA), point systems were sporadic at best. Thus we have the great debates about who was the best player at a particular time, for a particular year, and even (for the brave debater) for all time. It seems we generally take two approaches to determining a yearend #1 for a past year - 1. we try to quantify and debate the merits of the player's accomplishments for that year, and 2. we try to weigh contemporary (to the time) expert opinion (at least, published opinion) on the year in question. Very frequently we do both of these things and don't distinguish very well which we are doing or the relative merits of each method.
When considering contemporary expert opinion, many 'experts' published yearend top ten lists that clearly labelled a particular player as #1 for the year, Wallis Meyers did this, for example. At other times we glean opinions from old tennis books that Player X was the best in 1903, for example. How did these 'experts' make their judgments? Did they have a personal or de facto points system in their head? Did they consider all the matches played by a player in a year? Did they consider all the matches played by all the top players in a year? Is it likely they even had access to this information? And the answer of course, is 'no'... although sometimes assiduous efforts were made to gather as much information as possible.
I think there are at least three ways we and experts from the past look at who is the best for a particular year, (and they and we often don't distinguish which we are doing):
1. The accumulation of accomplishments during the year - who has the most impressive record or collection of titles - this is similar (but not identical) to our modern points systems.
2. Who is the 'best player'? Which player's tennis is most likely to win? Who has the best game? Who is the 'alpha?'
3. Was last year's best player (or the chief rival) convincingly beaten in a match that 'counts?'
It is this last point #3, that I think is like boxing. It seems that this sort of thinking certainly prevailed during the whole 'challenge round' era. The other players vied for a chance to knock off the champ in the challenge (title) round. We can see in the 1880's that the English considered Willie Renshaw the best in England (and the world, since no other country was up to the standard of English tennis, in their opinion), and yet he was only playing one public match per year - the challenge round final of Wimbledon. While bizarre to our modern mindset, this prize-fight mentality was accepted as normal in tennis at that time.
We see this prize-fight mentality continue for many decades. May Sutton claimed her second Wimbledon crown and then retreated to the US, actually California, and a successor to her as 'champ' would have to unseat her on her home turf, or so she seemed to be saying. Bill Tilden did the same thing in the 1920's, choosing to stay at home in the US (mostly). The tennis public seemed to accept that taking the title of champ or year's best could only be accomplished by beating him at Davis Cup or maybe at the (in Tilden's case) US Championships. When Davis Cup was initiated it was called the International Lawn Tennis Challenge and the US wished to challenge the idea that British tennis was the best in the world. It's a significant point - the idea was to determine who was the world's best. Beating a player in a Davis Cup final and winning that player's national championship was a slam dunk in determining best player for a year - at least until pro tennis.
As pro tennis tours picked up steam from 1926 on, we see this prize-fight mentality continue on the pro tour. The touring exhibitions - barnstorming tours - were a lot more like prize fights than tournaments, although one victory wouldn't determine a new champ - a winning tour might. Certainly this seems to be part of Jack Kramer's mentality in the mid-50's when he wouldn't give Pancho Gonzalez a shot at the world champ title until 1956 (correct me if that year is wrong). It's totally a boxing mentality. But as the pro circuit widened in the 1960's and with the dawn of open tennis in 1968, the idea of winning a tour of tournaments, and not just a tour of matches, came to predominate. This led to the points systems we use today (which had existed only in limited forms earlier). These point systems are much better at unifying a tour of far-flung tournaments where the top players are not constantly playing each other.
I have trouble considering Kramer the top player of 1955 (is that the year he didn't play?) just because Gonzalez hadn't had a title tour. But I do think, for example, that Bobby Riggs should be considered the top player of 1947. Consider, Riggs won the pro tour, Kramer the amateur. Then they met in one match at the end of the year. Riggs won it. Ergo Riggs is the #1 for the year. Sure Kramer might have been the better player, as he proved in 1948, but in the de facto title match for the year, Riggs was the victor. That's the prize-fight mentality. (edit: I realize that many will not agree about my assessment of 1947!)
I think that since the prize-fight mentality was a factor for the players, it must be considered as part of their context - in how they thought of themselves in relation to the idea of #1, the 'best,' or 'world champ.' This can help inform our debates about who we think was #1 for a particular year or period.
What do you think?
I don't actually know a lot about boxing and fighting, but the title of 'world champion', which is de facto "#1" is determined by who holds the belt (or title) designated for 'world champion.' Boxers don't play 80 matches a year, or have a unifed world tour of tournaments the way tennis does. But to be the 'champ' in boxing, you have to beat the current champ in a title fight. It seems that not all fights are (or 'were,' perhaps) title fights. It would be possible to beat the champ but not get the 'world champ' title/belt if it wasn't a title fight.
I put forward that the same idea existed in tennis for many years. Now in the present day, this mentality does not predominate in tennis. In tennis we determine #1 by an agreed upon (but subjective) system of points allocation. The system is applied objectively, but it's construction is necessarily subjective. We currently have point systems that comprise the WTA and ATP computer rankings that are commonly accepted as 'fair,' but they have been tweaked several times over the years since the computer rankings began. The fact that they can be tweaked shows that the system is subjective. However once accepted, the points system is objectively and consistently applied and so it can be deemed to be 'fair.' However, we could certainly conceive of other point systems that might have different results (e.g. average points per tournament vs. best-of-18 results), maybe one that made Federer #1 for 2017, for example.
However, before the computer rankings in 1973 (1975 for the WTA), point systems were sporadic at best. Thus we have the great debates about who was the best player at a particular time, for a particular year, and even (for the brave debater) for all time. It seems we generally take two approaches to determining a yearend #1 for a past year - 1. we try to quantify and debate the merits of the player's accomplishments for that year, and 2. we try to weigh contemporary (to the time) expert opinion (at least, published opinion) on the year in question. Very frequently we do both of these things and don't distinguish very well which we are doing or the relative merits of each method.
When considering contemporary expert opinion, many 'experts' published yearend top ten lists that clearly labelled a particular player as #1 for the year, Wallis Meyers did this, for example. At other times we glean opinions from old tennis books that Player X was the best in 1903, for example. How did these 'experts' make their judgments? Did they have a personal or de facto points system in their head? Did they consider all the matches played by a player in a year? Did they consider all the matches played by all the top players in a year? Is it likely they even had access to this information? And the answer of course, is 'no'... although sometimes assiduous efforts were made to gather as much information as possible.
I think there are at least three ways we and experts from the past look at who is the best for a particular year, (and they and we often don't distinguish which we are doing):
1. The accumulation of accomplishments during the year - who has the most impressive record or collection of titles - this is similar (but not identical) to our modern points systems.
2. Who is the 'best player'? Which player's tennis is most likely to win? Who has the best game? Who is the 'alpha?'
3. Was last year's best player (or the chief rival) convincingly beaten in a match that 'counts?'
It is this last point #3, that I think is like boxing. It seems that this sort of thinking certainly prevailed during the whole 'challenge round' era. The other players vied for a chance to knock off the champ in the challenge (title) round. We can see in the 1880's that the English considered Willie Renshaw the best in England (and the world, since no other country was up to the standard of English tennis, in their opinion), and yet he was only playing one public match per year - the challenge round final of Wimbledon. While bizarre to our modern mindset, this prize-fight mentality was accepted as normal in tennis at that time.
We see this prize-fight mentality continue for many decades. May Sutton claimed her second Wimbledon crown and then retreated to the US, actually California, and a successor to her as 'champ' would have to unseat her on her home turf, or so she seemed to be saying. Bill Tilden did the same thing in the 1920's, choosing to stay at home in the US (mostly). The tennis public seemed to accept that taking the title of champ or year's best could only be accomplished by beating him at Davis Cup or maybe at the (in Tilden's case) US Championships. When Davis Cup was initiated it was called the International Lawn Tennis Challenge and the US wished to challenge the idea that British tennis was the best in the world. It's a significant point - the idea was to determine who was the world's best. Beating a player in a Davis Cup final and winning that player's national championship was a slam dunk in determining best player for a year - at least until pro tennis.
As pro tennis tours picked up steam from 1926 on, we see this prize-fight mentality continue on the pro tour. The touring exhibitions - barnstorming tours - were a lot more like prize fights than tournaments, although one victory wouldn't determine a new champ - a winning tour might. Certainly this seems to be part of Jack Kramer's mentality in the mid-50's when he wouldn't give Pancho Gonzalez a shot at the world champ title until 1956 (correct me if that year is wrong). It's totally a boxing mentality. But as the pro circuit widened in the 1960's and with the dawn of open tennis in 1968, the idea of winning a tour of tournaments, and not just a tour of matches, came to predominate. This led to the points systems we use today (which had existed only in limited forms earlier). These point systems are much better at unifying a tour of far-flung tournaments where the top players are not constantly playing each other.
I have trouble considering Kramer the top player of 1955 (is that the year he didn't play?) just because Gonzalez hadn't had a title tour. But I do think, for example, that Bobby Riggs should be considered the top player of 1947. Consider, Riggs won the pro tour, Kramer the amateur. Then they met in one match at the end of the year. Riggs won it. Ergo Riggs is the #1 for the year. Sure Kramer might have been the better player, as he proved in 1948, but in the de facto title match for the year, Riggs was the victor. That's the prize-fight mentality. (edit: I realize that many will not agree about my assessment of 1947!)
I think that since the prize-fight mentality was a factor for the players, it must be considered as part of their context - in how they thought of themselves in relation to the idea of #1, the 'best,' or 'world champ.' This can help inform our debates about who we think was #1 for a particular year or period.
What do you think?
Last edited: