http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oXCKvawrmuY
See in this video (which also happens to be the best tennis match of all time, imo) - Wawrinka finishes his backhand stroke noticeably low compared to Almagro - especially when hitting a cross-court backhand.
Why do you think this is? Is he just not flexible? Do you think it limits the amount of topspin he is putting on the ball since his backhand finishes sorta low? Does Almagro get more topspin on that one-hander than Wawrinka?
Or is it some kind of modern one handed backhand that finishes low just like the windshield wiper forehand finishes low - and still generates huge topspin?
See in this video (which also happens to be the best tennis match of all time, imo) - Wawrinka finishes his backhand stroke noticeably low compared to Almagro - especially when hitting a cross-court backhand.
Why do you think this is? Is he just not flexible? Do you think it limits the amount of topspin he is putting on the ball since his backhand finishes sorta low? Does Almagro get more topspin on that one-hander than Wawrinka?
Or is it some kind of modern one handed backhand that finishes low just like the windshield wiper forehand finishes low - and still generates huge topspin?