Why doesn't the umpire just award the point.....

[roundiesee]

Just to follow up on what "gully" posted re the Robredo-Kohlschreiber controversy, I'd like to ask about this particular incident.
Hope you people can give me your views; sorry if posted before.
I've seen this happen a few times already but most recently it happened between Nadal and Ferrer.
During a routine rally, Nadal suddenly hits a great cross court shot which Ferrer could barely get to, the latter only manages to hoist the ball high up. The ball lands very short just barely crossing the net, and very near the sideline. The linesperson calls "out!", Nadal runs over and puts the gimme away, but despairingly looks to the sky because the ball has landed in, but due to the wrong call, the point has to be played over.
I do not understand why the point should not just be given to Nadal. If the ball was actually out, then Nadal wins the point. If the ball was in, it was a dead easy putaway, and Nadal would most definitely have won the point anyway. Just because the linesperson made the wrong call, the umpire has to award a replay.
Can anyone explain the logic??
Thanks in advance.

 

[BlueSapphire]

Just to follow up on what "gully" posted re the Robredo-Kohlschreiber controversy, I'd like to ask about this particular incident.
Hope you people can give me your views; sorry if posted before.
I've seen this happen a few times already but most recently it happened between Nadal and Ferrer.
During a routine rally, Nadal suddenly hits a great cross court shot which Ferrer could barely get to, the latter only manages to hoist the ball high up. The ball lands very short just barely crossing the net, and very near the sideline. The linesperson calls "out!", Nadal runs over and puts the gimme away, but despairingly looks to the sky because the ball has landed in, but due to the wrong call, the point has to be played over.
I do not understand why the point should not just be given to Nadal. If the ball was actually out, then Nadal wins the point. If the ball was in, it was a dead easy putaway, and Nadal would most definitely have won the point anyway. Just because the linesperson made the wrong call, the umpire has to award a replay.
Can anyone explain the logic??
Thanks in advance.

There's the problem. That's not a given. How many times have you seen a player smash an easy overhead right into the net? Players miss "dead easy putaways" in every match.

 

[gj011]

Same thing happened in AO final. Tsonga challenged the similar call and Djokovic could lose a point he won both ways due to a bad call.

 

[gj011]

There's the problem. That's not a given. How many times have you seen a player smash an easy overhead right into the net? Players miss "dead easy putaways" in every match.

But Nadal (or Djokovic in second case) made the that shot already.

 

[BlueSapphire]

But Nadal (or Djokovic in second case) made the that shot already.

I remember that moment in the Nadal/Ferrer match, and I'm not sure Rafa had already played the shot. Most of the time that isn't the case. Nevertheless, as soon as a call is made - play is dead, for a variety of reasons. If the call is late, then the same applies retroactively. Doesn't make any difference that the call was wrong. The only obvious exception being when the other player doesn't have a play on it. Sucks for the players, but that's the way it is. Some of it makes sense, some of it makes no sense. That's tennis for ya.