illkhiboy
Hall of Fame
I had a match last night where my opponent was flagrantly foot-faulting. To my discredit, I didn't call him out on it until 4-4, Ad-In (we were playing a pro-set). The serve was not hit very hard, and I casually blocked the ball on the other side of the court and called a foot-fault.
While I had an inkling that he was foot-faulting throughout the match, this was the first time that I actually stared at his feet, and noticed that he had both feet planted well inside the baseline as he connected with the ball. Considering that he was serving and volleying on nearly every serve, I thought it was putting me at a distinct disadvantage.
What followed was not pretty. He lost his cool; initially he argued it was his word against mine and then followed up that with a litany of excuses/complaints: that I should have warned him earlier and that since everyone in the tournament was foot-faulting I didn't have a right to call him out on it.
I thought the only valid complain was that I didn't warn him earlier. Now I think that a warning would have been polite, but his argument was that the ITF rules warranted a warning before a call (do they?), and that having failed to follow the correct procedure I should lose the point(!).
Eventually, after about 15 minutes of arguments, the tournament organizing committee decided that, (a) a line-judge would adjudicate foot-faults for the rest of the match for both players and (b) my opponent would be awarded the point.
So my question is whether this judgement was fair. I would really appreciate if someone could help answer this query.
Many thanks.
While I had an inkling that he was foot-faulting throughout the match, this was the first time that I actually stared at his feet, and noticed that he had both feet planted well inside the baseline as he connected with the ball. Considering that he was serving and volleying on nearly every serve, I thought it was putting me at a distinct disadvantage.
What followed was not pretty. He lost his cool; initially he argued it was his word against mine and then followed up that with a litany of excuses/complaints: that I should have warned him earlier and that since everyone in the tournament was foot-faulting I didn't have a right to call him out on it.
I thought the only valid complain was that I didn't warn him earlier. Now I think that a warning would have been polite, but his argument was that the ITF rules warranted a warning before a call (do they?), and that having failed to follow the correct procedure I should lose the point(!).
Eventually, after about 15 minutes of arguments, the tournament organizing committee decided that, (a) a line-judge would adjudicate foot-faults for the rest of the match for both players and (b) my opponent would be awarded the point.
So my question is whether this judgement was fair. I would really appreciate if someone could help answer this query.
Many thanks.