AtomicForehand
Hall of Fame
Jon Wertheim tweeted something today that got me thinking:
"Among Sharapova (Cal), Lisicki (Fla.) and Azarenka (Az.) you could claim American tennis is doing fine - residential if not homegrown"
OK. Let's take a look at this.
If pros both reside in and have trained most of their pro and pre-pro lives in the USA (in this case), why don't they play for the USA? Should it be "allowed" for them to play for other countries? At what point would be the cutoff? "Should" someone like Sharapova, who came to the USA at the age of seven and has lived and trained there pretty much ever since, be playing for the USA? What about Lisicki--I'm not sure of the time spent in each country, but her parents are from Poland, she also trains at the Bollettieri academy in the USA like Sharapova did, and yet she plays for Germany. How is the country a player represents decided, and are there any rules that the ITF has in place?
This question does not necessarily need to focus on the USA. There are other countries (like Britain and Canada) that "take in" players from other countries...like Baltacha (who plays for the UK, not her native Ukraine) and Raonic (who plays for Canada, and not Montenegro). Seems to me that this is right and proper--these two pros have been fostered by their national tennis programs, and give any glory that they earn back to their adopted countries.
Two thoughts:
1) If you've given up residence in your country of origin to move permanently to a new country, that says something pretty strong about the new country; your preference for living there instead of your native country should mean something.
2) If the new country has given you most or all of your professional training and development, why should the old country get the glory?
"Among Sharapova (Cal), Lisicki (Fla.) and Azarenka (Az.) you could claim American tennis is doing fine - residential if not homegrown"
OK. Let's take a look at this.
If pros both reside in and have trained most of their pro and pre-pro lives in the USA (in this case), why don't they play for the USA? Should it be "allowed" for them to play for other countries? At what point would be the cutoff? "Should" someone like Sharapova, who came to the USA at the age of seven and has lived and trained there pretty much ever since, be playing for the USA? What about Lisicki--I'm not sure of the time spent in each country, but her parents are from Poland, she also trains at the Bollettieri academy in the USA like Sharapova did, and yet she plays for Germany. How is the country a player represents decided, and are there any rules that the ITF has in place?
This question does not necessarily need to focus on the USA. There are other countries (like Britain and Canada) that "take in" players from other countries...like Baltacha (who plays for the UK, not her native Ukraine) and Raonic (who plays for Canada, and not Montenegro). Seems to me that this is right and proper--these two pros have been fostered by their national tennis programs, and give any glory that they earn back to their adopted countries.
Two thoughts:
1) If you've given up residence in your country of origin to move permanently to a new country, that says something pretty strong about the new country; your preference for living there instead of your native country should mean something.
2) If the new country has given you most or all of your professional training and development, why should the old country get the glory?