Why was Connors so defenseless against McEnroe in 1984
Up until 1983 McEnroe and Connors had a fairly even rivalry. But in 1984 McEnroe demolished Connors one time after another.
WCT finals in Dalls 61 62 63
RG SF 75 61 62
Queens SF 62 62
Wim Final 61 61 62
Thins only changed after Wimbledon, in their Toronto match Connors won a set and then there was the epic US Open five set match.
But how could McEnroe be so dominating against Connors for the first half of of 1984?
People will generally come up with two answers: 1) 1984 was the year McEnroe was unbeatable, he compiled an 82-3that remains the highest single-season win rate of the Open Era.
2) Connors was getting too old and was declining
I do not really buy any of those explanations
Yes, Mac was superb in 1984, but he did not demolish other, lower ranked, players the way he demolished Connors.
In WCT Dallas, Queens and Wimbledon he lost fewer games against Connors than against any other player he faced in those tournaments. In RG he only lost fewer games in the first round against a qualifier than he did against Connors.
So while McEnroe was great in 1984 he did not dominate other, lower ranked, players the way he dominated Connors for the first half of the year.
Then there is the Connors-was-getting-too-old-and-was-past-his-prime argument
Connors spent the entire 1984 in top three and at the end of the year he was the second ranked player, ahead of Lendl (whom he beat in Wimbledon and Tokyo) and Wilander. In Roland Garros he beat Sundtrom, an exellent clay court player who, as we remember beat McEnroe in the Davis Cup Final.
And the matches in WCT Dallas, Roland Garros, Queens and Wimbledon, where he was totally demolished, were all played when he was still the reigning US Open championn
So Connors was still a top player, maybe not in his absolute prime, but definitely pretty close to his prime.
So how could McEnroe dominate Connors to the extent that he did in the first half of 1984? He was the better player for sure, but not THAT much better.
How come he beat Connors more convincingly than all the lower ranked players he faced in the same tournaments?
Any thoughts?
Up until 1983 McEnroe and Connors had a fairly even rivalry. But in 1984 McEnroe demolished Connors one time after another.
WCT finals in Dalls 61 62 63
RG SF 75 61 62
Queens SF 62 62
Wim Final 61 61 62
Thins only changed after Wimbledon, in their Toronto match Connors won a set and then there was the epic US Open five set match.
But how could McEnroe be so dominating against Connors for the first half of of 1984?
People will generally come up with two answers: 1) 1984 was the year McEnroe was unbeatable, he compiled an 82-3that remains the highest single-season win rate of the Open Era.
2) Connors was getting too old and was declining
I do not really buy any of those explanations
Yes, Mac was superb in 1984, but he did not demolish other, lower ranked, players the way he demolished Connors.
In WCT Dallas, Queens and Wimbledon he lost fewer games against Connors than against any other player he faced in those tournaments. In RG he only lost fewer games in the first round against a qualifier than he did against Connors.
So while McEnroe was great in 1984 he did not dominate other, lower ranked, players the way he dominated Connors for the first half of the year.
Then there is the Connors-was-getting-too-old-and-was-past-his-prime argument
Connors spent the entire 1984 in top three and at the end of the year he was the second ranked player, ahead of Lendl (whom he beat in Wimbledon and Tokyo) and Wilander. In Roland Garros he beat Sundtrom, an exellent clay court player who, as we remember beat McEnroe in the Davis Cup Final.
And the matches in WCT Dallas, Roland Garros, Queens and Wimbledon, where he was totally demolished, were all played when he was still the reigning US Open championn
So Connors was still a top player, maybe not in his absolute prime, but definitely pretty close to his prime.
So how could McEnroe dominate Connors to the extent that he did in the first half of 1984? He was the better player for sure, but not THAT much better.
How come he beat Connors more convincingly than all the lower ranked players he faced in the same tournaments?
Any thoughts?