If we just automatically assume that Federer was declined in 2014 in comparison to 2009 because he was 5 years older and now in his 30s, wouldn't we also have to logically have to conclude he has declined from his 2014 form since he is now 5 years older than he was then?
If Federer is still playing and winning at 43, are we going to pretend that the competition just keeps getting weaker and weaker, rather than Federer maintaining his level?
If Federer is still playing and winning at 43, are we going to pretend that the competition just keeps getting weaker and weaker, rather than Federer maintaining his level?