Cortana
Legend
(Coppied from Reddit)
Every single news outlet continues to drive home the narrative that Novak has now equaled Margaret Court in Grand Slams, and that he needs just one more to surpass her.
Forgive me if I’m wrong, but I never heard anything about Federer, Nadal, or Djokovic chasing Court’s 24 Slams over the many years that they dominated, up until about last year.
It seems extremely illogical to group these two completely disparate competitions (men’s and women’s tennis) together. Novak competes in men’s tennis, and the men’s tennis record was 14 (Sampras). Then Federer took it. Then Nadal took it. Now Djokovic has it. I don’t think Novak has ever once thought to himself, “I want to break Margaret Court’s record”.
In addition, after doing some research, it appears that many/most of the game’s best players did not even participate in the Aussie Open (which comprise nearly half of Court’s slams) in the ‘70s due to remoteness of the location, the inconvenient dates that the tournament was scheduled on, and the low prize money.
For the reasons I have stated above, I truly do not understand why any comparisons whatsoever between Court’s record and Djokovic’s record are being made. Nonetheless, it appears that the media has chosen to take this narrative and run with it.
Can anyone explain why? And, furthermore, can anyone make an argument for why it should be made?
Every single news outlet continues to drive home the narrative that Novak has now equaled Margaret Court in Grand Slams, and that he needs just one more to surpass her.
Forgive me if I’m wrong, but I never heard anything about Federer, Nadal, or Djokovic chasing Court’s 24 Slams over the many years that they dominated, up until about last year.
It seems extremely illogical to group these two completely disparate competitions (men’s and women’s tennis) together. Novak competes in men’s tennis, and the men’s tennis record was 14 (Sampras). Then Federer took it. Then Nadal took it. Now Djokovic has it. I don’t think Novak has ever once thought to himself, “I want to break Margaret Court’s record”.
In addition, after doing some research, it appears that many/most of the game’s best players did not even participate in the Aussie Open (which comprise nearly half of Court’s slams) in the ‘70s due to remoteness of the location, the inconvenient dates that the tournament was scheduled on, and the low prize money.
For the reasons I have stated above, I truly do not understand why any comparisons whatsoever between Court’s record and Djokovic’s record are being made. Nonetheless, it appears that the media has chosen to take this narrative and run with it.
Can anyone explain why? And, furthermore, can anyone make an argument for why it should be made?