ADuck
Legend
Subjectively, an argument can be made for that winning more evenly in the four slams is more impressive than dominating just one and winning the others to a much lesser degree. Problem is, this can be argued the exact opposite way round. Why is it not more impressive to dominate one of the slams in a degree no man ever has before and still do reasonably well in the others? It's just as subjectively reasonable to say that a player who can dominate at one slam is more impressive than being fairly great in all 4 slams, but on another level in none. It's an argument of versatility vs otherworldy domination. I would not consider Nadal a better/greater player had he lost 5 of his FO's to Djokovic/Federer and gained 5 slams elsewhere. He'd have a more 'balanced' resume, and be a more 'balanced' player, but by no means be a 'better' or 'greater' player because he still has won the same amount of titles. In fact, you could argue his peak level would be lower, because he could not dominate anywhere to the same degree he has at the French Open.
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