Whats your top 10 of all time now (men)

NoMercy

Hall of Fame
I arrived at the same conclusion. They only gave points from the quarters on.
It looks like at Wimbledon and the US they gave points as follows: W: 100, F : 60, SF : 30, QF : 15

That would mean 40 points for Emerson for winning the French.
Yep.
Perfect.

It looks like the real majors are two :D
 

NoMercy

Hall of Fame
This one is even better.

"The Martini & Rossi Award, for any late-comers," (like Ivan! NM's note) "is a trophy put up for the world-titlist. Points are awarded for finishes in the quarter-finals or better in the five major tournaments - Australia, Italy, France, Wimbledon and U.S."
Evening Star, 20 Aug 1967
 

abmk

Bionic Poster
Ok, take it into account. 19-7 in tours and 43-31 in big tournaments and tours.

BTW you didn't responded to my long post. Any problems?

why should I take it in account when talking about matches in very big tournaments ? makes no sense.

I do take the tour matches into account when assessing the total H2H.

and no problem with responding to the long post. I was out, not in front of my computer. And that's not something I could reply to in 3-4 mins.
 

abmk

Bionic Poster
1. Before 69 and after 69 this event is a slam no matter how it was called.

Like I said there are clear reasons why the names were so :

US Championships - only open to amateurs
US Pro - only open to the pros
US Open - open .

its not about no matter how it was called. Its about why they were called so. That there is a good reason that you could them in separate categories.

12. The objective answer is:
2.1. Comparing only the majors the value of Fed's majors is more than Ros's majors;
2.2. Comparing the entire careers the value of Rosewall's 23 majors, 2 YE finals, 44 other big titles, 16 tours, 43 another titles, 106 finals, 122 semis, 60 QF, 56 R16, 19 R32 and 9 R64 is more than the same of Fed.

Ha-ha. Again some brilliant calculations.
But if want to see the real picture you have to calculate the entire careers of the players. And if you are able to count them (I fully doubt you can) you will see that Rosewall has 192,200 points, Laver 183,250 points and Fed 156,215 points. That's points-wise.

Your statement was "But despite that current praises some experts still mention that Fed equaled Laver by majors, that Rosewall is still with 23 "


so how does this statement of yours look like now ? Federer had already surpassed both Rosewall and Laver in terms of the value of majors won by the time he won Wimbledon 2012 , correct ? Going by your own definition. Its good to see you acknowledged that Federer's majors are clearly worth more than Rosewall's and Laver's.
Now that we've settled that, lets move on.

I was very clear that I don't agree with your way of counting. "Now lets look at it that way for a second (not that I agree)"
Now, I agree you have to calculate the entire careers of the players to evaluate them fully. I already said I don't evaluate the way you do.
I'm not saying Federer's career is better than Laver's and Rosewall's based on just the above. That's a different issue.
 

NoMercy

Hall of Fame
Let's see how the Australian Open was treated in the ranking era.

1973
A : Category reserved for the Triple Crown events.
B : Assigned to the most prestigious events of the regular series. Prize money over $100K.
C : Assigned for tournaments paying out more than $75K but less than $100K.
D : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K with larger draws (64)
E : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K with smaller draws (32)
F : Assigned to all other countable tournaments, regularly paying at least $20K
Australian Open had $30K prize money, so it would have been a F category, but it received a bonus step for being a Slam (pointed as D)

1974
A : Category reserved for the Triple Crown events.
B : Assigned to the most prestigious events of the regular series. Prize money over $125K.
C : Assigned for tournaments paying out $100K
D : Assigned for tournaments paying out $75K
E : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K
F : Assigned to all other countable tournaments, paying out more than $25K.
Australian Open had $40K prize money, so it would have been a F category, but it received a bonus step for being a Slam (pointed as E)

1975
A : Category reserved for the Triple Crown events.
B : Assigned to the most prestigious events of the regular series. Prize money over $125K.
C : Assigned for tournaments paying out $100K
D : Assigned for tournaments paying out $75K
E : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K
F : Assigned to all other countable tournaments, paying out more than $25K.
Australian Open had $55K prize money, so it would have been a E category, but it received a bonus step for being a Slam (pointed as D)

1976
AA : Category reserved for the Triple Crown events.
A : Assigned to the most prestigious events of the regular series. Prize money over $150K.
B : Assigned for tournaments paying out $125K
C : Assigned for tournaments paying out $100K
D : Assigned for tournaments paying out $75K
E : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K
F : Assigned to all other countable tournaments, paying out more than $25K.
Australian Open had $65K prize money, so it would have been a E category, but it received a bonus step for being a Slam (pointed as D)

So, as you can see there is a top Category (the Majors) that doesn't follow the prize money divisions.
The Triple Crown events were among the richer of the circuit, but there were some richer ones (for example Las Vegas or Palm Springs) placed in a lower category.
In a very few words : Australian Open was treated as a regular tournament, just with a little bonus for being a Slam, but away from being a Major.
And there is no speculation: it is what happened.

Let's go down now, without rankings, but with many info.

1972
Out of WCT, out of Grand Prix, $8,800 total prize money, almost all Australian players (like the Aussie Champs of 1920s - 1930s !) the worst Slam of the Open Era, clearly not a Major.

1971
Great tournament, part of WCT circuit that literally saved the Aussie Open after a 1970 in deep red and no money in the pockets of the Australian Federation.
Not really Open (GP players could not play). I can close an eye on this one :)

1970
WCT/NTL players banned (so not really open and so almost all the best players missing), average prize money. Very difficult to close an eye.

1969
Average prize money, but medium/good field. It was the first Australian Open, so there was hype to play it even if some good players were missing.
My opinion : if Laver didn't clinch the Grand Slam, it would have been contested like 1970 edition.
 

abmk

Bionic Poster
I reply again properly.
The top players in all sports are measured by their achievements. No such components like level of play, dominance etc. Pele is on the top due to his unprecedented 3 World Cups and near 1,300 goals. Jordan is on the top due to his champions and MVP titles. Everybody knows Phelps with his 23 titles IIRC. Everybody knows Lewis with his records and titles. Everybody knows Woods with his 16 majors IIRC. This is what remains in the history.
Research it. And I am talking principally how the sport is measured not how Rosewall should be measured. Everybody (players, experts, media) cares about the achievements. The other is just interesting details.

I don't follow golf too much, but Woods has 14 majors, not 16.
And he was proclaimed as the GOAT of golf by so many, even though Jack Nicklaus has 18 majors, because of his dominance, if I am not mistaken.

Achievements do remain in history. So do impressions of the general people/other players/experts. That's why you have tons of articles/rankings etc.


You can take periods but this is NOT a measurement. These are year numbers not saying anything about the level of competition, is this the real peak play etc. Second, taking periods (not measurement) you easily ignore the other periods of the player. A player been #1 for 5 years and #2 for 10 years could have much better achievements than player B been #1 for 6 years and #2 for 3 years.
Using your methods of thinking should we ignore a player like Nadal who has "only" 4 #1s but in the last 10 years is always in the top 3. No, we should differentiate between the ranking or YE position and the peak play of a player. To be #2 or #3 is also a great achievement.

All these years you mention are very interesting for the tennis fans but they don't define the evaluation of the entire careers of the players.
1. You may have some dominant periods and beyond them weaker periods or injuries. Examples - Mac, Borg, Wilander.
2. At the same time we have players without big dominant periods but with a more consistent game and much more success - Lendl, Connors.

Fed is among the greatest not because his 04-07 period was dominant but because his entire career is excellent. His period after 2007 is also remarkable despite he was not dominant.

Yes, yes, don't worry. I have all the stats about the players - titles, W/L, H2H etc. I have them into account.

So the dominance can't be a definitive indicator for the resume of a player. I consider the career of Lendl and Connors more successful than Mac, Borg and Wilander.

Those are measurements of those specific parameters. I already said you have to take the context into account for those years. Like Connors in 74 was 96-4. But he played only 7 top 10 players (TB ranking) IIRC. He played on the clearly weak Riordan tour. So that knocks the perceived dominance in that year down. You need to adjust vs the competition for that year.

Point was you said peak play/dominance couldn't be measured. I've shown you how it can be.

Dominance isn't the only indicator, but it is a significant one.
These parameters by themselves don't cover the rating of a player's entire career, nor are they meant to.

Your example of player A and player B is very much possible. But that aspect for A is covered by another parameter - longevity.

The question is how much weight you give to these parameters --- peak play, dominance, consistency, being #1, adaptability to surfaces, longevity, h2h vs top 10 players etc.

That's a BIG BIG problem. Most of the current tennis fans have NO or barely knowledge of the whole pre-OE. Most of the current tennis fans don't even a barely knowledge of the 70s and 80s. That's really too bad.
If you now make a brainstorming in the forum for the top 10 the list will be almost full of OE players. Be sure. Some of them will mention Laver because they have heard something about him but no idea about his career. Do you think that the most fans but even also current experts know about the careers of Gonz, Rosewall, Tilden etc? Wow, 0 to 1% max. Make the same brainstorm about European football! The results will be Ronaldo, Messi, Neymar. Most of the fans don't know about Pele.
So, the "widely" regard of the players could be fully not representative. And don't forget the media coverage, PR, advertising and all related big money around.

now that's a different issue. Gonzales and Rosewall are clearly under-rated by the public. Not my point. Point is I or others don't have reasons to belittle Rosewall purposely because :
a) Laver is widely regarded as the competitor to Federer as the GOAT, not Rosewall. Do you see us consistently belittling Laver just to put Federer ahead ? Nope.
b) and when I said historically about Gonzales, I meant by the players of those times and the experts of those times (not current ones who don't know)

See below ........

Look, I have read such words not only from you. But they mean nothing when finally you rank him #9. This place is too far from the real place he deserves. My view is that this guy deserves very fairly a place at least in the top 3 all time. I rank him at the top with Laver but I wont argue if somebody ranks him #2 or #3 but not lower.

you need to remember that my list of the greatest players of all time - which is a mix of achievements and subjective opinion.
Its not a list of players with most achivements. (considering overall length of career)

they are not necessarily the same.
Rosewall would be higher in a list of most achieved.
 
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NoMercy

Hall of Fame
I know the French dubbed the 1912 edition already as WHCC, but as far as I know, it was recognized by the ILTF as "World Championships" only in the spring of 1913, when they decided to grant such titles not only on clay, but on grass and covered courts as well.
I also count the 1924 Olympics, and then the French International from 1925 as the successor of the 1923 WHCC.

Interestingly, when in 1961 Potter in World Tennis singled out the 6 most important amateur events, he chose the four GS+ITA+GBRhard. So at least till 1961 the South African and German events were not widely recognized as majors.
I didn't reply right away because I wanted to be sure.
So I double checked and as I have like more than ten thousands of clips, sometimes it takes time :D

Check in the beginning of the article, where it states that the tournament was officiated by the English Federation, of which the ILTF was the successor.
It says that only with the Hard Court in the name of the tournament, it could have been recognized.
Because the World Grass Court was Wimbledon.

L6BImko.jpg


So it is a official Major ;)
 
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elegos7

Rookie
I didn't reply right away because I wanted to be sure.
So I double checked and as I have like more than ten thousands of clips, sometimes it takes time :D

Check in the beginning of the article, where it states that the tournament was officiated by the English Federation, of which the ILTF was the successor.
It says that only with the Hard Court in the name of the tournament, it could have been recognized.

So it is a official Major ;)

Thanks for the article. It is always good to see original articles that help us clarify the organizational aspects of a tournament.
 

NatF

Bionic Poster
Bobby, Bobby, Bobby. 10 times the name "Bobby" in your sentences. When posting you are not posting personally to Bobby but you express your positions to everyone. You are talking to me not to Bobby.

Wow, something new. You respect R because he writes letters to F. Wow, how generous?
Ha-ha. Laver's interview defines your position. If Laver has said Smith is the GOAT you will not read it. 300% sure. Like other guys you are reading very very selectively, only that fits your prejudiced position.

Now let's face some differences:
1. You are leading anti-Ivan campaign. I am not leading anti-Nat campaign.

2. You blame me for showing the achievements of Rosewall. I don't blame you for showing the achievements of other players.

3. You don't respect people who have other opinion than you. Again for a 100th time you are showing disrespect, now using the word "stink".

4. Your bias is so high that it's impossible that somebody could be ahead of Fed. Not possible. For you Fed is #1 by default. That's it. Simple.

5. Making an analysis and evaluation of the careers of the players is much better than using delusional non-measurable factors like "dominance", "level of play" etc. which you define 100% subjectively.

I rate Gonzlez as #1.

You're a joke.
 

Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
Borg was top class yet and it was his first full year on the tour. Borg was 17 when they played. Rosewall was a seasoned veteran and a top ten player ranked number 9 in the world.

Borg was around number 44 in the world according to Tennis Base as of July 17, 1973. Borg met Rosewall on in late August of 1973 defeating Rosewall who was number 9 in the world by 2-6 6-1 7-5.
Nadal was top class last year, but he still lost to Shapo. And I'm by no means convinced at this time that Shapo is a future Borg, so if this is an indicator of things to come, we don't know it yet.
 

Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
I spitted on the ATP database, that it's full of faults.
Because they don't know the old results, they started to keep medium/good track in 1978.
But the rules they made at that time, I bet they knew them :D
It's worse than that. Check points% for all players, HC, in 2003. One of many huge errors that the ATP never even bothered to take a look at.
 

KG1965

Legend
I will address this properly. Try to read this without any pre-conceived bias or notions.

1. The top players in all sports are measured by their several factors of which achievements is one, peak level play , dominance are among others. Longevity is another, consistency is another, adapting to circumstances is another . But people normally pay more attention to peak play. Its how good can this guy play when he's playing really well. It is why almost no one in the past players has Rosewall as #1 among the 3 (Laver, Gonzales, Rosewall). Laver even rated him at #6 in the pre-open era(his rating was based on peak play). Most of the other players did not rate Rosewall as #1 either.
Most of the expert lists have Rosewall as #3/#4 in that era depending on whether they were focussing on peak play for Hoad.

Now, I agree that they under-rated achievements and over-rated peak level of play. But now, you are going to the other extreme. Just taking achievements and not even thinking about other factors, including peak play. You cannot re-write history by talking only achievements, when at that time level of play was valued highly. You can say they over-rated and reduce its importance to a more appropriate level, but you cannot ignore it.

2. Peak cannot be measured ? Not true.
You can take peak periods (1 year, 4 years, 5 years etc.). See their records in that time period. But you need to compare like to like if you want to compare directly. Many a times, this is not possible. So you need to adjust according to the circumstances of those times. You cannot compare pro period %s to amateur period%s.

Dominance cannot be measured ? Not true.

Borg's 77-80, Lendl's 85-87 and Federer's 04-07 are the top 3 dominant periods in the open era (if we consider their overall records in that period want to take a 3 or 4 year period).
Laver's 69, Borg's 79, Mac's 84, Federer's 06, Djokovic's 15 etc. are among the dominant years in the open era.

Check their W/L record, their titles won, their record in majors in those time periods etc. etc.
Another parameter to look at is to check their Games Won-Loss % (need to look surface wise as well, since this stat favours clay court dominance)

Peak level of play within a match cannot be measured ? Again, not necessarily true. You can, if you have the stats for the matches and know how to analyze in a nuanced way (here's one such attempt : https://tt.tennis-warehouse.com/ind...vel-of-play-federer-nadal-djokovic-co.450014/. Again, this is just one parameter. You cannot judge by just one parameter. Don't say I didn't say that.)

3. And finally, who is widely regarded as GOAT apart from Federer. Laver, right ? Do you see any of us going on and on and belittling his achievements?
Why would we target Rosewall instead of targetting Laver ?
And Gonzales is regarded more highly historically than Rosewall. I and the others should be belittling Gonzales, not Rosewall, right ?
No, instead I've always argued that Gonzales achieved more and was the greater player.

4. See this conversation for instance, where I pointed out that Rosewall was under-rated in this list.

https://tt.tennis-warehouse.com/ind...ll-time-now-men.474196/page-122#post-11725497
I agree, a nice post.
Only one thing: we need to agree on the term "dominance".
Borg in 1977-78 did not dominate. Indeed in 1977 Bjorn was 3rd !
 

KG1965

Legend
What's the dominance ? Johnnymac 1981-84 ? Federer las year (AO-AO) ?
When can a dominant period be defined?
What characteristics must it have?
 

NatF

Bionic Poster
What's the dominance ? Johnnymac 1981-84 ? Federer las year (AO-AO) ?
When can a dominant period be defined?
What characteristics must it have?

In the past I've defined dominance as;

1) 50%+ of majors won in that time period
2) 50%+ of all tournaments entered won in that time period
3) 90%+ win/loss record in that time period

Generally for me at least the top 2 need to be picked, in the pro tour this might not work quite so well. In some years with a fuller tournament circuit the top 2 could be roughly right - win loss record is impossible though.
 

Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
Check their W/L record, their titles won, their record in majors in those time periods etc. etc.
Another parameter to look at is to check their Games Won-Loss % (need to look surface wise as well, since this stat favours clay court dominance)
That's true. It is very clear from the records of Borg and Nadal that clay dominance looks more impressive in terms of games. Quite obviously what we are after is some kind of reliable connection between games won, matches won and events won.

If we go only by games won, Borg and Nadal are clearly the best players of the OE, and no great grass-court player is in the running. But looking at matches we see the same kind of dominance in super years, regardless of the surface best suiting the player.

I have only one additional thought: perhaps we can say that any player who has both an incredibly long career and who is at the very top or very close to the very top for many of those years has to be looked at with extra respect. Also that dominance and #1 are not always the same thing. For instance, in my mind Fed was more dominant last year than Nadal, in spite of the end of the year ranking.

I'd always look very carefully at aging players who are not longer #1 but who are still winning top events long past an age that is expected for that, which is why I look very carefully at both Gonzalez and Rosewall in this respect, and I also believe that is a powerful argument for those who look at Tilden. I'm not so sure about Connors, because he hung on for so many years but really was no longer winning big titles after 1983.
 

KG1965

Legend
In the past I've defined dominance as;

1) 50%+ of majors won in that time period
2) 50%+ of all tournaments entered won in that time period
3) 90%+ win/loss record in that time period

Generally for me at least the top 2 need to be picked, in the pro tour this might not work quite so well. In some years with a fuller tournament circuit the top 2 could be roughly right - win loss record is impossible though.
It seems to me a good criterion, it is difficult to say if it is the best.

The problem is that mathematics does not go hand in hand with perception (McEnroe dominated the period 1981-84 even if two years did not dominate).

Furthermore ...
when two players are very close, does the dominator exist? Can they be two dominators? Federer and Nadal have massacred everyone in 2017.
One is dominator? Both ? Or no one?
 

NoMercy

Hall of Fame
It's worse than that. Check points% for all players, HC, in 2003. One of many huge errors that the ATP never even bothered to take a look at.
I know Gary.
My point was that I often spit on ATP database for its inaccurate record of the info.
But this has not anything to do with ATP ranking points allocation during the years, that followed a categorization of the tournaments
 

NoMercy

Hall of Fame
I'd always look very carefully at aging players who are not longer #1 but who are still winning top events long past an age that is expected for that, which is why I look very carefully at both Gonzalez and Rosewall in this respect, and I also believe that is a powerful argument for those who look at Tilden. I'm not so sure about Connors, because he hung on for so many years but really was no longer winning big titles after 1983.
I wrote that in a previous post.
The 1971-72 and 1974 are the reason I have Rosewall so high in my all time list
 

thrust

Legend
Can we fix a date when the Italian, German and South African champs started to be regarded as majors?

I think the first official majors recognized by the International Lawn Tennis Federation (ILTF) were the three ‘World Championship’ titles created in 1913. Great Britain was granted the ‘World Championships on Grass’ at Wimbledon, and France the ‘World Hard Court Championships’ on clay in Paris. There was also a ‘World Covered Court Championships’ on wood staged in a different ILTF member country every year.
Then in 1923 it was agreed that no tennis tournament was to carry the title of World from 1924. Instead, a new category of Official Championship was created for events in Great Britain, France, USA and Australia for next year.
In 1929 the ILTF recognized the Dutch and German, then in 1930 the Belgian, and in 1932 the South African Championships as "Official Championship".
However, I do not know since when the Italian Championship was recognised as Official Championship. Maybe not in the 1930s when it was still a rather insignificant event.

Of course, by the 1960s there were indeed three important amateur events beside the slams, the Italian, German and the South African.
I regard the South African as a major from 1966, when the Breweries sponsorship began, and a lot of foreign stars began to appear.
I also read that the Italian and German events in the 1960s (or maybe earlier) were recognized as major not every year, but only biannually.
I would like to know more about the exact details of what were regarded as Official Championship (or "majors") after World War II. It is clear the first editions of the German event after the war cannot be regarded as majors, and the Italian championship also had a couple of weaker years after the war.
Before 1968 the majors were: Wimbledon, Australian Championships, French Championships and the US Championships. From 1968, when the open era began, the majors were: Wimbledon, US Open, French Open and Australian Open. South Africa, German or Italian championships or open were Never considered majors, nor are they today.
 

KG1965

Legend
I'm tackling Sampras' career in another thread, and I'm putting your attention here to an issue I was thinking about: the competion (weak or not weak).

I would like to make a speech about the competition.

It's a popular/common thought that some times have had little competition (2017-2018) or beginning OE or Sampras Era.
Other times a stratospheric competition (1976-late 80s) or early Fedalovic.

In fact, we often read: Sampras won a lot because the only opponent was Agassi. Or Pioline!:(:mad:

By-pass that in the last year and a half there have been too many injuries ....first and only time in history so extraordinary case....
otherwise the competition has always been high IMO.
It's been different.:cool:


Federer had as main adversaries Nadal & Djokovic (TIER 1) + Wawr & Murray (TIER 2), the others proved to be very poor.
Also McEnroe for example had Connors, Borg, Lendl (TIER 1) but perhaps apart from Vilas (TIER 2) the others proved to be much lower level.
Sampras had perhaps only Agassi in TIER 1 but had to fight with an army of TIER 2.

Is it more difficult to win when there are two monsters in circulation but then there is a gap or when there is only one monster and so many dangerous players?
 

Ivan69

Hall of Fame
Ok, after a brief math count (easy even for a 5th grader) I guess that Wimbledon and US awarded 100 to the winner and 60 to the finalist.
Newcombe has no results in Rome and Paris (at least QF) and Graebner and Bungert have only one final (one in Wimbledon one in US) and the same points.
So I guess it was 4 times the Australian/Italian champs.

And I guess the French 39/40 points to the winner, to have Emerson at 80 total points (if we suppose that US is 4 times Australia)

So sad for Ivan, that we destroy his idea of 4 majors a year.
In 1967 the Aussie Champs was just like the Italian ;)
Sad? I am pretty well. My idea? It's not mine.
 

Ivan69

Hall of Fame
This one is even better.

"The Martini & Rossi Award, for any late-comers," (like Ivan! NM's note) "is a trophy put up for the world-titlist. Points are awarded for finishes in the quarter-finals or better in the five major tournaments - Australia, Italy, France, Wimbledon and U.S."
Evening Star, 20 Aug 1967
Perfect. Then why Rome is not considered major for that years?
 

Ivan69

Hall of Fame
why should I take it in account when talking about matches in very big tournaments ? makes no sense.

I do take the tour matches into account when assessing the total H2H.

and no problem with responding to the long post. I was out, not in front of my computer. And that's not something I could reply to in 3-4 mins.
The tour matches are similar to the big tournament matches - high level of competition, top players played.
 

pc1

G.O.A.T.
Players since 1920 who have been called the GOAT by a decent amount of players/experts...at least for a short time.
1. Tilden
2. Vines
3. Budge
4. Kramer
5. Gonzalez
6. Laver
7. Connors-yes a number of people were in awe of Connors and called him the GOAT.
8. Borg
9. Sampras
10. Federer
11. Nadal
12. Djokovic
13. McEnroe

Federer seems to get the most feedback as the GOAT but Laver gets a lot I think because of his Grand Slams. Kramer seems to get the most from past players.

Tilden may have even equaled Federer over the years. Even in 1969 he ranked easily first in a vote by great tennis experts like Bud Collins!
 
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pc1

G.O.A.T.
how does that change what I said ?

gonzales-rosewall were dead even at 8 all on clay from 59 to 61 -- 3 of Rosewall's prime years.
that's pretty good, right ?

FTR, TennisBase has Gonzales at 5-9 on clay vs Laver, which is pretty good considering all those matches were played when Gonzales was over 35 and Laver was at his peak.
That’s why I say I think Gonzalez would have probably won the French Pro or if it could have been played, a hypothetical French Open in the 1960s. He was an excellent clay player. The French Pro wasn’t played much in his top years.
 

pc1

G.O.A.T.
That's exactly it...

How do you feel about the inclusion of doubles in these lists?
I don’t like it. We’re discussing singles. If you want a thread about a great Davis Cup player then you can include doubles.
 

KG1965

Legend
Players since 1920 who have been called the GOAT by a decent amount of players/experts...at least for a short time.
1. Tilden
2. Vines
3. Budge
4. Kramer
5. Gonzalez
6. Laver
7. Connors-yes a number of people were in awe of Connors and called him the GOAT.
8. Borg
9. Sampras
10. Federer
11. Nadal
12. Djokovic
13. McEnroe

Federer seems to get the most feedback as the GOAT but Laver gets a lot I think because of his Grand Slams. Kramer seems to get the most from past players.

Tilden may have even equaled Federer over the years.
13!! And Rosewall ?
 

Ivan69

Hall of Fame
Like I said there are clear reasons why the names were so :

US Championships - only open to amateurs
US Pro - only open to the pros
US Open - open .

its not about no matter how it was called. Its about why they were called so. That there is a good reason that you could them in separate categories.
No. It doesn't matter at all. Hundreds of tournaments have changed their names.
so how does this statement of yours look like now ? Federer had already surpassed both Rosewall and Laver in terms of the value of majors won by the time he won Wimbledon 2012 , correct ? Going by your own definition. Its good to see you acknowledged that Federer's majors are clearly worth more than Rosewall's and Laver's.
Now that we've settled that, lets move on.

I was very clear that I don't agree with your way of counting. "Now lets look at it that way for a second (not that I agree)"
Now, I agree you have to calculate the entire careers of the players to evaluate them fully. I already said I don't evaluate the way you do.
I'm not saying Federer's career is better than Laver's and Rosewall's based on just the above. That's a different issue.
That's exactly the issue. The entire career of Laver and Rosewall is better than Fed's one.
My calculations are the same as yours but cover all the achievements. Even not all. Because I don't calculate the thousands ONS the pros have played.
 

Ivan69

Hall of Fame
Let's see how the Australian Open was treated in the ranking era.

1973
A : Category reserved for the Triple Crown events.
B : Assigned to the most prestigious events of the regular series. Prize money over $100K.
C : Assigned for tournaments paying out more than $75K but less than $100K.
D : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K with larger draws (64)
E : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K with smaller draws (32)
F : Assigned to all other countable tournaments, regularly paying at least $20K
Australian Open had $30K prize money, so it would have been a F category, but it received a bonus step for being a Slam (pointed as D)

1974
A : Category reserved for the Triple Crown events.
B : Assigned to the most prestigious events of the regular series. Prize money over $125K.
C : Assigned for tournaments paying out $100K
D : Assigned for tournaments paying out $75K
E : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K
F : Assigned to all other countable tournaments, paying out more than $25K.
Australian Open had $40K prize money, so it would have been a F category, but it received a bonus step for being a Slam (pointed as E)

1975
A : Category reserved for the Triple Crown events.
B : Assigned to the most prestigious events of the regular series. Prize money over $125K.
C : Assigned for tournaments paying out $100K
D : Assigned for tournaments paying out $75K
E : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K
F : Assigned to all other countable tournaments, paying out more than $25K.
Australian Open had $55K prize money, so it would have been a E category, but it received a bonus step for being a Slam (pointed as D)

1976
AA : Category reserved for the Triple Crown events.
A : Assigned to the most prestigious events of the regular series. Prize money over $150K.
B : Assigned for tournaments paying out $125K
C : Assigned for tournaments paying out $100K
D : Assigned for tournaments paying out $75K
E : Assigned for tournaments paying $50K
F : Assigned to all other countable tournaments, paying out more than $25K.
Australian Open had $65K prize money, so it would have been a E category, but it received a bonus step for being a Slam (pointed as D)

So, as you can see there is a top Category (the Majors) that doesn't follow the prize money divisions.
The Triple Crown events were among the richer of the circuit, but there were some richer ones (for example Las Vegas or Palm Springs) placed in a lower category.
In a very few words : Australian Open was treated as a regular tournament, just with a little bonus for being a Slam, but away from being a Major.
And there is no speculation: it is what happened.

Let's go down now, without rankings, but with many info.

1972
Out of WCT, out of Grand Prix, $8,800 total prize money, almost all Australian players (like the Aussie Champs of 1920s - 1930s !) the worst Slam of the Open Era, clearly not a Major.

1971
Great tournament, part of WCT circuit that literally saved the Aussie Open after a 1970 in deep red and no money in the pockets of the Australian Federation.
Not really Open (GP players could not play). I can close an eye on this one :)

1970
WCT/NTL players banned (so not really open and so almost all the best players missing), average prize money. Very difficult to close an eye.

1969
Average prize money, but medium/good field. It was the first Australian Open, so there was hype to play it even if some good players were missing.
My opinion : if Laver didn't clinch the Grand Slam, it would have been contested like 1970 edition.
Worst slam but SLAM!!!!!!!!!!!! Take it or leave it.
 

Ivan69

Hall of Fame
I don't follow golf too much, but Woods has 14 majors, not 16.
And he was proclaimed as the GOAT of golf by so many, even though Jack Nicklaus has 18 majors, because of his dominance, if I am not mistaken.

Achievements do remain in history. So do impressions of the general people/other players/experts. That's why you have tons of articles/rankings etc.
No, dear abmk! Everybody talks and remembers the titles. If you go back to the articles you will read that experts and journalists raised the question if it's possible for Woods to beat the record by titles. This was the main theme.
Those are measurements of those specific parameters. I already said you have to take the context into account for those years. Like Connors in 74 was 96-4. But he played only 7 top 10 players (TB ranking) IIRC. He played on the clearly weak Riordan tour. So that knocks the perceived dominance in that year down. You need to adjust vs the competition for that year.

Point was you said peak play/dominance couldn't be measured. I've shown you how it can be.

Dominance isn't the only indicator, but it is a significant one.
These parameters by themselves don't cover the rating of a player's entire career, nor are they meant to.

Your example of player A and player B is very much possible. But that aspect for A is covered by another parameter - longevity.

The question is how much weight you give to these parameters --- peak play, dominance, consistency, being #1, adaptability to surfaces, longevity, h2h vs top 10 players etc.
You are contradicting yourself - talking of the dominance of Connors in 74 but at the same time having played weaker events and vs lower ranked players. That's what I told you before. You can't define some dominance without analysing the level of competition. And objectively you can't be dominant if there is a strong competition.
I am giving a low weight of all these indicators because the results matter. If the results are closer than other indicators like H2H matter.
All these indicators (peak play, dominance, consistency, being #1, adaptability to surfaces, longevity, h2h vs top 10) are secondary because they affect the most important - the results, the titles, the records. Nobody mentions the dominance of Phelps but everybody knows about his 23 titles IIRC.
a) Laver is widely regarded as the competitor to Federer as the GOAT, not Rosewall. Do you see us consistently belittling Laver just to put Federer ahead ? Nope.
b) and when I said historically about Gonzales, I meant by the players of those times and the experts of those times (not current ones who don't know)
Again widely regarded? As I told this is not a reasonable and fully informed opinion. Even by the players and experts of that time which didn't knew all the achievements of the players. These were fully personal opinions based on their direct matches. Thus these opinions are not representative.
you need to remember that my list of the greatest players of all time - which is a mix of achievements and subjective opinion.
Its not a list of players with most achivements. (considering overall length of career)

they are not necessarily the same.
Rosewall would be higher in a list of most achieved.
Yeah. And this is the main problem. The achievements in your estimates takes a little part. But they are the most important. Because all the players in all sports are fighting 100% for titles and results not for dominance or peak play. Thus the achievements should consist at least 90% of the evaluation of a player.
 

Ivan69

Hall of Fame
In the past I've defined dominance as;

1) 50%+ of majors won in that time period
2) 50%+ of all tournaments entered won in that time period
3) 90%+ win/loss record in that time period

Generally for me at least the top 2 need to be picked, in the pro tour this might not work quite so well. In some years with a fuller tournament circuit the top 2 could be roughly right - win loss record is impossible though.
How have you defined these percentages?
 

thrust

Legend
The funny part is the Laver/Rosewall ones are good ones. The Emerson ones are weak :D
Then deduct Laver's 6 amateur slams, Rosewall's 4 and Emerson's12. In that case Rod has 5 slams, Rosewall-4 and whatever credit you want to give their pro majors-slams. Also, the 69 and 71 AO were highly competitive and deserve to be called full OE slams. The fact though that Rosewall won the 72 WCT, there is a good possibility he could have won the 72 AO, had the competition been as strong as the year before. Rosewall was an exceptional big tournament competitor and winner, equal to Laver and Gonzalez, at least.
 

KG1965

Legend
1) Federer T1
2) Laver T1
3) Gonzalez T1
4) Rosewall T1/T2
5) Nadal T1/T2
6) Borg T2
7) Sampras T2
8) Connors T2
9) Kramer T2
10) Riggs T2
11) McEnroe T3
12) Djokovic T3
13) Lendl T3
14) Hoad T4
15) Agassi T4
POST WAR II
Post update AO2018 (after Nadal 2017 and a definitive reading of Sampras)... WORK IN PROGRESS....
Federer GOAT
2) Laver T1
3) Gonzalez T1
4) Nadal T1/T2
5) Rosewall T2
6) Sampras T2
7) Borg T2
8) Connors T2
9) McEnroe T3
10) Djokovic T3
11) Lendl T3
12) Agassi T4

I am not able to give a serious judgment on Kramer, Riggs, Segura and Hoad.:mad::(:confused:

Clarification: the ranking is clearly not precise because speculative as I can not really get into the merits of the Pro / Am period.
Without giving a ranking of what were the big events Pro/Am v OE, is impossible for me to make a comparison between the 2 ages.
 

NatF

Bionic Poster
Rome was NEVER considered a Major, an important tournament for sure, but not a major.

I recall an interview with Borg at the USO where he said he'd won all the major events except the USO - he named Wimbledon, the French, The Masters/Dallas (IIRC) and also Rome.
 
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thrust

Legend
POST WAR II
Post update AO2018 (after Nadal 2017 and a definitive reading of Sampras)... WORK IN PROGRESS....
Federer GOAT
2) Laver T1
3) Gonzalez T1
4) Nadal T1/T2
5) Rosewall T2
6) Sampras T2
7) Borg T2
8) Connors T2
9) McEnroe T3
10) Djokovic T3
11) Lendl T3
12) Agassi T4

I am not able to give a serious judgment on Kramer, Riggs, Segura and Hoad.:mad::(:confused:

Clarification: the ranking is clearly not precise because speculative as I can not really get into the merits of the Pro / Am period.
Without giving a ranking of what were the big events Pro/Am v OE, is impossible for me to make a comparison between the 2 ages.
As to the Post WW II list I mostly agree, except I would put Rosewall along with Nadal at Tier 1/ Tier 2. Also, I would put Agassi in T3 and Djokovic in T2
 

NatF

Bionic Poster
But why 50%? Why not 2%? Or 70%? Nothing could define the so called "dominance". You need quality criteria for that.

I just gave you a definition for dominance. If you have a different one that's fine but we can come up with a criteria for dominance just like you come up with criteria to rate tournaments.

Yes. Rome was a big event wanted by Borg but not a slam.

Major =/= Slam

Wembley was not a slam but was a major, WCT finals not a slam but a major - especially in 1972 with the non-major AO ;)
 
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