asifallasleep
Hall of Fame
I have a great slice backhand in general and a decent topspin on low balls below my knees. My natural inclination on balls above the knee is to slice slice slice. Are balls above the knees on a one handed backhand considered a high ball? I really want to be able to rip my one hand backhand on balls above my knees. Seems like i'd have to run back and let it drop? A few guys i hit with, every ball is with aggressive topspin. I don't want to continually retreat to let the ball drop and on the rise against pace proves difficult as well.
Should i be positioning my body to the side of these ball and rolling it from below? Or, should i be swinging gradually straight up and through the ball while using my legs?
I can't seem to confidently rip my one hander like i'm ripping my forehand. It always seems like a finesse shot where my timing has to be perfect.
I started out 25 years ago with a two handed backhand but have had my one hander for well over a decade. Attempts to go back to the two hander have prove unsuccessful.
How to rip a one hand backhand on balls above the knee is my question? Stroke wise and positioning wise. Thanks.
Should i be positioning my body to the side of these ball and rolling it from below? Or, should i be swinging gradually straight up and through the ball while using my legs?
I can't seem to confidently rip my one hander like i'm ripping my forehand. It always seems like a finesse shot where my timing has to be perfect.
I started out 25 years ago with a two handed backhand but have had my one hander for well over a decade. Attempts to go back to the two hander have prove unsuccessful.
How to rip a one hand backhand on balls above the knee is my question? Stroke wise and positioning wise. Thanks.