1970: an Almost Complete Picture

treblings

Hall of Fame
@Dan Lobb
So true. Again, making a comparison between tennis and what I teach:

If you follow great pianists and read stuff by fans, the impression you will get is that there is continuous evolution. The best get better and better. The young players are faster, or more powerful, or more accurate. You have young players like Lang Lang who have their rabid fans, saying that nothing like what they do ever existed before.

When in fact that's not true at all, and several players who are now dead remain right at the top in terms of what they did.

But there are two huge differences. First, stereo recordings have been around since the late 50s. And there has been no important improvements in the construction of pianos. To get to the time when the instrument itself was still evolving you have to go back more than a century, to a time when recordings are not available.

In tennis you have something very different. Obviously we do not have hi-def videos going back more than 50 years, but by the 70s at least we have a pretty good record of matches. But when we go back to the time of Connors and Borg, we're back to wood and guys (leaving aside the T-2000 that no one but Connors could control), so as we start forward from there, through all the changes, people keep comparing the strokes with the idea that tennis itself is evolving.

But what is evolving are the rackets.

Certainly today's athletes are insanely well-conditioned, traveling with teams, physios, and so on, but the apparent evolution in strokes is actually a change in technique to utilize the modern rackets and strings to the max.

Comparing technique using wood and gut to technique with modern rackets and polly is like comparing harpsichord technique to technique on primitive pianos to technique on modern pianos.

The difference: people are still playing on all three. There are modern harpsichord players, and there are "period" players who perform on older pianos. Technique on these three instruments is amazingly different.

If we still had tournaments played by the best players in the world where they had to use the old wood rackets, small heads, only gut, you'd see in a flash that a lot of things being done today would not work at all.

Even if you lived during that time I think it's harder because none of us remember things as perfectly as we assume. We can watch whole matches between top players in the late 70s. Early 70s? Where is the complete Dallas match between Laver and Rosewall?

Where is the complete RG final between Laver and Rosewall?

Where are all the complete finals of Laver's GS in '69?

The answer is that we are forced to "reconstruct" what went on then, based on what we read and what we remember. But I don't trust my memory of matches played almost 50 years ago, not without being able to watch videos for a "reality check".

What convinces me that things have not really "evolved" is watching matches between players who are close to retirement against up and coming players. We have at least one clay match between Laver and Borg. Laver does not look like "a thing of the past" except that obviously he is much older, so at a disadvantage. We have old McEnroe 92 still getting some impressive wins against top players in '92, old Agassi against top players still in the game right now, Sampras playing young Fed, and that just scratches the surface. Now we have old Fed with a comparatively new racket.

When I watch these match-ups it's hard not to conclude that the only reason these aging players were not longer fully competitive was age, not "evolution".

I started playing in the mid '60s. But even though I watched tennis keenly back then, when matches were shown, I can't revisit them. Whereas I can check out videos of the late 70s, so I'm pretty much limited to forming impressions from that era. That means that I'm only able to rewatch full matches of Rosewall and Laver when they were very old, even more true of Gonzalez. So even though I was older than you were, at that time, my really strong memories are of Conners, Evert, Borg and McEnroe. My interest faded to nothing when Wilander and Lendl played. I just never warmed to either. I think the emphasis on the Lendl forehand as the link to the modern ATP forehand is not quite right, because people confuse racket evolution with stroke evolution.

There you have a great example of age vs. evolution. The difference in age between those two is about the same as that between Djokovic and Federer. People are going to look at Becker's strokes as "modern" and then assume that it was inevitable that Becker was going to get the upper hand. Then people will assume that the way Mac played was more age related than "unique technique used by no one else" related.
You'll see Nalbandian hitting more like Nadal, rifling BHs down the line or even cross court with the left leg splayed out to the left and even sliding:


2:05

I think he probably did have the best 2HBH of all the modern players.

Whereas Borg, I don't believe, could use that technique with wood and gut, so you see him stepping into all backhands much more. I also loved the release of the LH, really making his 2HBH more of a 1H-2H hybrid. ;)[/QUOTE]

the difference between music and sports, imo, is that you can´t separate the athletic side from the other skills in sports.
the fact that todays athletes are better athletically makes them superior.
that doesn´t mean of course that you can´t appreciate the skills and the determination and everything else of the older generations.
i would pick a Laver-Rosewall encounter to watch on video every day of the week.
a great match is about much more than athletic ability.

Players like Federer can compete with the young guns because they never stop improving. in many ways, Federer in 2017 is
superior to his younger self. it´s only age that is stopping him.
there are other examples of world class players who weren´t able to continuosly get better during their career.
they weren´t succesful for long though

the fact that the equipment has changed so much over the last 50 years of course makes comparisons much more difficult.

btw, if you could transfer a prime Laver to 2017, he couldn´t adapt his technique to todays equipment. of course he could
play with modern racquets and strings, but he couldn´t change his technique to fully use the advantages. not on world class level.

i don´t trust my memory to evaluate matches that happened decades ago.
i do think you have a different kind of knowledge if you´ve lived through the times, which is probably why i value the opinions of
contemporary witnesses so much

different questions, can you or do you rank musicians? Is there a no.1 pianist for example in your opinion?
 

Dan Lobb

G.O.A.T.
@Dan Lobb
So true. Again, making a comparison between tennis and what I teach:

If you follow great pianists and read stuff by fans, the impression you will get is that there is continuous evolution. The best get better and better. The young players are faster, or more powerful, or more accurate. You have young players like Lang Lang who have their rabid fans, saying that nothing like what they do ever existed before.

When in fact that's not true at all, and several players who are now dead remain right at the top in terms of what they did.

But there are two huge differences. First, stereo recordings have been around since the late 50s. And there has been no important improvements in the construction of pianos. To get to the time when the instrument itself was still evolving you have to go back more than a century, to a time when recordings are not available.

In tennis you have something very different. Obviously we do not have hi-def videos going back more than 50 years, but by the 70s at least we have a pretty good record of matches. But when we go back to the time of Connors and Borg, we're back to wood and guys (leaving aside the T-2000 that no one but Connors could control), so as we start forward from there, through all the changes, people keep comparing the strokes with the idea that tennis itself is evolving.

But what is evolving are the rackets.

Certainly today's athletes are insanely well-conditioned, traveling with teams, physios, and so on, but the apparent evolution in strokes is actually a change in technique to utilize the modern rackets and strings to the max.

Comparing technique using wood and gut to technique with modern rackets and polly is like comparing harpsichord technique to technique on primitive pianos to technique on modern pianos.

The difference: people are still playing on all three. There are modern harpsichord players, and there are "period" players who perform on older pianos. Technique on these three instruments is amazingly different.

If we still had tournaments played by the best players in the world where they had to use the old wood rackets, small heads, only gut, you'd see in a flash that a lot of things being done today would not work at all.

Even if you lived during that time I think it's harder because none of us remember things as perfectly as we assume. We can watch whole matches between top players in the late 70s. Early 70s? Where is the complete Dallas match between Laver and Rosewall?

Where is the complete RG final between Laver and Rosewall?

Where are all the complete finals of Laver's GS in '69?

The answer is that we are forced to "reconstruct" what went on then, based on what we read and what we remember. But I don't trust my memory of matches played almost 50 years ago, not without being able to watch videos for a "reality check".

What convinces me that things have not really "evolved" is watching matches between players who are close to retirement against up and coming players. We have at least one clay match between Laver and Borg. Laver does not look like "a thing of the past" except that obviously he is much older, so at a disadvantage. We have old McEnroe 92 still getting some impressive wins against top players in '92, old Agassi against top players still in the game right now, Sampras playing young Fed, and that just scratches the surface. Now we have old Fed with a comparatively new racket.

When I watch these match-ups it's hard not to conclude that the only reason these aging players were not longer fully competitive was age, not "evolution".

I started playing in the mid '60s. But even though I watched tennis keenly back then, when matches were shown, I can't revisit them. Whereas I can check out videos of the late 70s, so I'm pretty much limited to forming impressions from that era. That means that I'm only able to rewatch full matches of Rosewall and Laver when they were very old, even more true of Gonzalez. So even though I was older than you were, at that time, my really strong memories are of Conners, Evert, Borg and McEnroe. My interest faded to nothing when Wilander and Lendl played. I just never warmed to either. I think the emphasis on the Lendl forehand as the link to the modern ATP forehand is not quite right, because people confuse racket evolution with stroke evolution.

There you have a great example of age vs. evolution. The difference in age between those two is about the same as that between Djokovic and Federer. People are going to look at Becker's strokes as "modern" and then assume that it was inevitable that Becker was going to get the upper hand. Then people will assume that the way Mac played was more age related than "unique technique used by no one else" related.
[/QUOTE]
Duane, I have posted some clips from the Forest Hills from 1957, which gives some idea of the quality of play then in the late fifties.

Also, I am hopeful that CBS still has in its archives the FH TOC matches from 1957-59, the greatest players of that era.

They still look like better athletes to me than what we have now.

Of course, the style of play was different, but required as much or more skill and strength....those guys in the fifties had huge weight-lifting regimes.
 
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Dan Lobb

G.O.A.T.
Obviously it's different. You don't get ranking points for looking good. ;)

But there are also sort of unofficial competitions in piano. These come from comparisons of top players playing the same virtuoso pieces, and there are certain instances when one player or another simply smokes everyone else.

Here is an example of a piece of music I don't even like, and I would never say that pianist A or B is better because of being able to play a showpiece:


But if you play piano and watch this, you simply say: "This is just not possible. It's a lot like watching some of the insane tennis moments when player A, B or C puts together a few shots that don't seem humanly possible. ;)

Maybe. Or maybe we should just find the greatest moments of all of the players who are dominating some era. Or study each era for the best of the best.

Here's where the whole GOAT thing fails for me. Concentrating on GOAT lists I'm not even going to pay attention to certain players, so I'm unlikely to pay much attention to a guy like Safin. He's never going to make it to the top of any GOAT list because his dominance was so short, but I'd hate not to know about him just because I was not watching tennis during the brief time when he was insanely good.

A better example for me would be Hoad. I never really paid much attention to him because he was obviously peaking before I watched tennis. Who is going to put Hoad at the top of a GOAT list? But then you read about how his contemporaries viewed him, when he was at the top of his game, and it makes you wonder: What if he had stayed uninjured and had greater longevity?

Each of those players should be studied as standout players in their eras. But people are either going to respect history and learn something, or they are going to be like the fans in the General Forum who worship only the players who are on top right at the moment.

A happy medium in fan-worship would be a welcome change. :)

But I think rabid fans actually turn people against great players. It's not just Rosewall, or Laver. Look at the Federer worship. It's not enough that he is without doubt one of the greatest players we've ever seen. Fans turn him into Savior of the World!!!
Cziffra was a phenomenon...but how many of his recordings of Brahms or Beethoven or Bach are still played today?

Technique is only part of the story.
 

Limpinhitter

G.O.A.T.
* * *
btw, if you could transfer a prime Laver to 2017, he couldn´t adapt his technique to todays equipment. of course he could
play with modern racquets and strings, but he couldn´t change his technique to fully use the advantages. not on world class level.

* * *

I completely disagree with this premise. To the contrary, Laver, Okker, Roche and Nastase were the prototype of modern stroke production, especially Laver's and Okker's forehands. Unlike their traditional peers, they would fully benefit from modern racquets and strings with the technique they had. Federer's forehand is based on Laver's and Okker's forehands. The only thing these players would have to change today is their grips to better deal with higher bouncing surfaces and higher bouncing balls from opponents.
 
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Limpinhitter

G.O.A.T.
@Dan Lobb
So true. Again, making a comparison between tennis and what I teach:

If you follow great pianists and read stuff by fans, the impression you will get is that there is continuous evolution. The best get better and better. The young players are faster, or more powerful, or more accurate. You have young players like Lang Lang who have their rabid fans, saying that nothing like what they do ever existed before.

When in fact that's not true at all, and several players who are now dead remain right at the top in terms of what they did.

But there are two huge differences. First, stereo recordings have been around since the late 50s. And there has been no important improvements in the construction of pianos. To get to the time when the instrument itself was still evolving you have to go back more than a century, to a time when recordings are not available.

In tennis you have something very different. Obviously we do not have hi-def videos going back more than 50 years, but by the 70s at least we have a pretty good record of matches. But when we go back to the time of Connors and Borg, we're back to wood and guys (leaving aside the T-2000 that no one but Connors could control), so as we start forward from there, through all the changes, people keep comparing the strokes with the idea that tennis itself is evolving.

But what is evolving are the rackets.

Certainly today's athletes are insanely well-conditioned, traveling with teams, physios, and so on, but the apparent evolution in strokes is actually a change in technique to utilize the modern rackets and strings to the max.

Comparing technique using wood and gut to technique with modern rackets and polly is like comparing harpsichord technique to technique on primitive pianos to technique on modern pianos.

The difference: people are still playing on all three. There are modern harpsichord players, and there are "period" players who perform on older pianos. Technique on these three instruments is amazingly different.

If we still had tournaments played by the best players in the world where they had to use the old wood rackets, small heads, only gut, you'd see in a flash that a lot of things being done today would not work at all.

Even if you lived during that time I think it's harder because none of us remember things as perfectly as we assume. We can watch whole matches between top players in the late 70s. Early 70s? Where is the complete Dallas match between Laver and Rosewall?

Where is the complete RG final between Laver and Rosewall?

Where are all the complete finals of Laver's GS in '69?

The answer is that we are forced to "reconstruct" what went on then, based on what we read and what we remember. But I don't trust my memory of matches played almost 50 years ago, not without being able to watch videos for a "reality check".

What convinces me that things have not really "evolved" is watching matches between players who are close to retirement against up and coming players. We have at least one clay match between Laver and Borg. Laver does not look like "a thing of the past" except that obviously he is much older, so at a disadvantage. We have old McEnroe 92 still getting some impressive wins against top players in '92, old Agassi against top players still in the game right now, Sampras playing young Fed, and that just scratches the surface. Now we have old Fed with a comparatively new racket.

When I watch these match-ups it's hard not to conclude that the only reason these aging players were not longer fully competitive was age, not "evolution".

I started playing in the mid '60s. But even though I watched tennis keenly back then, when matches were shown, I can't revisit them. Whereas I can check out videos of the late 70s, so I'm pretty much limited to forming impressions from that era. That means that I'm only able to rewatch full matches of Rosewall and Laver when they were very old, even more true of Gonzalez. So even though I was older than you were, at that time, my really strong memories are of Conners, Evert, Borg and McEnroe. My interest faded to nothing when Wilander and Lendl played. I just never warmed to either. I think the emphasis on the Lendl forehand as the link to the modern ATP forehand is not quite right, because people confuse racket evolution with stroke evolution.

There you have a great example of age vs. evolution. The difference in age between those two is about the same as that between Djokovic and Federer. People are going to look at Becker's strokes as "modern" and then assume that it was inevitable that Becker was going to get the upper hand. Then people will assume that the way Mac played was more age related than "unique technique used by no one else" related.

You'll see Nalbandian hitting more like Nadal, rifling BHs down the line or even cross court with the left leg splayed out to the left and even sliding:


2:05

I think he probably did have the best 2HBH of all the modern players.

Whereas Borg, I don't believe, could use that technique with wood and gut, so you see him stepping into all backhands much more. I also loved the release of the LH, really making his 2HBH more of a 1H-2H hybrid. ;)

Nadal is not that effective rifling backhands dtl, which is a low percentage shot in most cases anyway. On the forehand side, however, Nadal rifles balls dtl in utter defiance of the laws of physics and nature. Accord Nalbandian's and Agassi's backhands.
 

Dan Lobb

G.O.A.T.
You'll see Nalbandian hitting more like Nadal, rifling BHs down the line or even cross court with the left leg splayed out to the left and even sliding:


2:05

I think he probably did have the best 2HBH of all the modern players.

Whereas Borg, I don't believe, could use that technique with wood and gut, so you see him stepping into all backhands much more. I also loved the release of the LH, really making his 2HBH more of a 1H-2H hybrid. ;)


I would rank Richter and Gould, both pianists who emerged in 1956 recordings, as the greatest, but not because of technique, more because of their ability to give some new interpretations of standard compositions.

Gould brought a contrapuntal approach to everything, even Mozart and Beethoven, and showed how that could work to reveal new possibilities.
Richter always had an individual view on everything he played.

Their success was as much related to conception as technique. They still remain at the top, according to surveys of listeners of classical music.
 

Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
Cziffra was a phenomenon...but how many of his recordings of Brahms or Beethoven or Bach are still played today?

Technique is only part of the story.
Dan, I would only recommend Ciffra to people who do not know about him, and he has an incredible story. He was a technical force of nature, and at times he was surprisingly musical. But most of the time he's more like a circus act. ;)

I can't write more here because it is 100% off topic. :)
 

Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
I would rank Richter and Gould, both pianists who emerged in 1956 recordings, as the greatest, but not because of technique, more because of their ability to give some new interpretations of standard compositions.

Gould brought a contrapuntal approach to everything, even Mozart and Beethoven, and showed how that could work to reveal new possibilities.
Richter always had an individual view on everything he played.

Their success was as much related to conception as technique. They still remain at the top, according to surveys of listeners of classical music.
@Dan Lobb
Not sure why you wrote this to @treblings. But any list I made of great pianists would have those two on it. :)
 

Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
the difference between music and sports, imo, is that you can´t separate the athletic side from the other skills in sports.
the fact that todays athletes are better athletically makes them superior.
that doesn´t mean of course that you can´t appreciate the skills and the determination and everything else of the older generations.
i would pick a Laver-Rosewall encounter to watch on video every day of the week.
a great match is about much more than athletic ability.
Absolutely, you can't compare music and sports for the reasons you gave. You never divorce interpretation from technique in music, and the greatest musicians I've heard continued to improve as musicians long after they peaked technically. It doesn't work that way in sports.
Players like Federer can compete with the young guns because they never stop improving. in many ways, Federer in 2017 is
superior to his younger self. it´s only age that is stopping him.
I'd say that you could graph a player's understanding of the game and mastery of tactics against his physical peak, and to some extent you would have two different curves. I'd say that Fed has continued to improve as a tactician, and I'd even say that his backhand is the best it's ever been right now. How much of that is due to the new racket is debatable. But he is definitely not the same player, physically as he was 10 years ago. That is obvious.
there are other examples of world class players who weren´t able to continuosly get better during their career.
they weren´t succesful for long though.
Not all players continue to evolve their mental approach to the game, and perhaps some are amazingly precocious, tactically, even early in their careers. We are also in a period right now in which the technological changes directly impacted players who started dominating in the early "naughts". I know that people who have examined strings far more than I have claim that not all players got on board the "poly train" at first, so those who did had a decided advantage, then over the next 10-15 years it moved from that to everyone using that technology. This would mean, perhaps, that things have actually become tougher for Fed, and logically he was pushed to continue evolving.

Did all the great ones do that? I'm not sure, but it is likely, because how else are ATGs going to continue to dominate, even on good days, as they pass the age of 30 and even approach 40?
the fact that the equipment has changed so much over the last 50 years of course makes comparisons much more difficult.
Absolutely.
btw, if you could transfer a prime Laver to 2017, he couldn´t adapt his technique to todays equipment. of course he could
play with modern racquets and strings, but he couldn´t change his technique to fully use the advantages. not on world class level.
That's too far into "what if" for me. Laver, trained as he was from a young age playing only with wood and gut, would be very different from a modern clone, trained from day one with today's equipment. But maybe his clone would be an inch or two taller, growing up with modern nutrition, and I'd imagine that insane amount of athletic talent would manifest itself in some manner.

More than the equipment I think that bounce of today's courts would be a problem for guys like Laver and Rosewall. It seems to me that being built lower to the ground was once an advantage playing on low-bouncing grass, with it's very unpredictable bounce. Even today players say that they get sore at first when transitioning to grass, but it seemed so extreme on old grass, when three majors each year were on grass. I remember BJK always talking about how rough grass was on her knees.
different questions, can you or do you rank musicians? Is there a no.1 pianist for example in your opinion?
No. I never rank musicians. I think it's absurd to try to pick one pianist who is supposedly superior to all others. I would merely talk about those who are, in my opinion, unique. Something they do or did is worth listening to because no one else does it.
 
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treblings

Hall of Fame
Absolutely, you can't compare music and sports for the reasons you gave. You never divorce interpretation from technique in music, and the greatest musicians I've heard continued to improve as musicians long after they peaked technically. It doesn't work that way in sports.

I'd say that you could graph a player's understanding of the game and mastery of tactics against his physical peak, and to some extent you would have two different curves. I'd say that Fed has continued to improve as a tactician, and I'd even say that his backhand is the best it's ever been right now. How much of that is due to the new racket is debatable. But he is definitely not the same player, physically as he was 10 years ago. That is obvious.

Not all players continue to evolve their mental approach to the game, and perhaps some are amazingly precocious, tactically, even early in their careers. We are also in a period right now in which the technological changes directly impacted players who started dominating in the early "naughts". I know that people who have examined strings far more than I have claim that not all players got on board the "poly train" at first, so those who did had a decided advantage, then over the next 10-15 years it moved from that to everyone using that technology. This would mean, perhaps, that things have actually become tougher for Fed, and logically he was pushed to continue evolving.

Did all the great ones do that? I'm not sure, but it is likely, because how else are ATGs going to continue to dominate, even on good days, as they pass the age of 30 and even approach 40?

Absolutely.

That's too far into "what if" for me. Laver, trained as he was from a young age playing only with wood and gut, would be very different from a modern clone, trained from day one with today's equipment. But maybe his clone would be an inch or two taller, growing up with modern nutrition, and I'd imagine that insane amount of athletic talent would manifest itself in some manner.

More than the equipment I think that bounce of today's courts would be a problem for guys like Laver and Rosewall. It seems to me that being built lower to the ground was once an advantage playing on low-bouncing grass, with it's very unpredictable bounce. Even today players say that they get sore at first when transitioning to grass, but it seemed so extreme on old grass, when three majors each year were on grass. I remember BJK always talking about how rough grass was on her knees.

No. I never rank musicians. I think it's absurd to try to pick one pianist who is supposedly superior to all others. I would merely talk about those who are, in my opinion, unique. Something they do or did is worth listening to because no one else does it.

lots of good points.

i think that players not only continue to improve tactically or in their understanding of the game.
they continue to improve because they need to react to the rising level of play.
they need to change parts of their game because of new opponents. Federer had to react to Nadals unique game for example.

a famous example on the womens side was Steffi Graf, who dominated the game for years before young Monica Seles arrived on the scene.
Graf had seen no need for years to develop her game further, since she won nearly everything.

i don´t want to play the "what if" game too much either. your point about low bouncing grass courts favoring smaller players is a good one.
i like the fact, that just at the moment when we all agree that modern tennis has become a game for tall players, along comes someone
like Schwartzman who shows what is possible and keeps us on our toes.

Lavers "clone" would very likely be a bit taller. i think every generation of humans grows a bit taller than the previous ones.
if you want to know how Laver would have played had he grown up today, look no further than Denis Shapovalov.
Shapovalov has yet to prove that he can be a great player, but he sure has the strokes
 

thrust

Legend
Dan, I would only recommend Ciffra to people who do not know about him, and he has an incredible story. He was a technical force of nature, and at times he was surprisingly musical. But most of the time he's more like a circus act. ;)

I can't write more here because it is 100% off topic. :)
Actually, an nice switch of topic. Claudio Arrau was my favorite. Not so much for technique but the lush sound he produced.
 

Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
This is pretty standard:


  • artist
    noun
    • 1A person who creates paintings or drawings as a profession or hobby.
    1. 1.1 A person who practises or performs any of the creative arts, such as a sculptor, film-maker, actor, or dancer.
  • 1.2 A person skilled at a particular task or occupation.
    ‘a surgeon who is an artist with the scalpel’

  • 2informal with modifier A person who habitually practises a specified reprehensible activity.

    ‘rip-off artists’
This is not sarcasm: Is English not your first language?
 

Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
lots of good points.

i think that players not only continue to improve tactically or in their understanding of the game.
they continue to improve because they need to react to the rising level of play.
they need to change parts of their game because of new opponents. Federer had to react to Nadals unique game for example.
That's HAS to be true whenever one ATG is playing against other ATGs. It has to be especially true when things are changing - methods of training, equipment, new techniques. To me one of the biggest changes in tennis happened under Borg, because for the first time (at least that I can remember) topspin shots became the clear norm on both wings. Even today it is unusual for a 1HBH player to hit more topspin than slice on that wing, and I recall players like Lopez relying almost entirely on slice backhands. I believe he has made an effort to come over more in very recent years. I believe Fed has also moved to a higher percentage of topspin on the backhand side, but I don't have stats to back that up. Most likely he hit a higher % of slice earlier in his career. Hitting short to the backhand was a trap for most players and turned into a liability against Nadal.
a famous example on the womens side was Steffi Graf, who dominated the game for years before young Monica Seles arrived on the scene.
And also the change in dominance between Evert and Navratilova. For the most part that favored Martina, but Evert struggled to evolve her game in later years. She had to.
Graf had seen no need for years to develop her game further, since she won nearly everything.
Like Evert.
i like the fact, that just at the moment when we all agree that modern tennis has become a game for tall players, along comes someone
like Schwartzman who shows what is possible and keeps us on our toes.
So true, and I believe he is shorter than his listed height. Any degree of success for players under 6 feet gives a bit more weight to former champions who were shorter.
Lavers "clone" would very likely be a bit taller. i think every generation of humans grows a bit taller than the previous ones.
if you want to know how Laver would have played had he grown up today, look no further than Denis Shapovalov.
Shapovalov has yet to prove that he can be a great player, but he sure has the strokes
[/quote]
I think that's a pretty good way to look at it:

http://abcnews.go.com/Technology/story?id=98438&page=1

Apparently we have pretty much hit our limit re nutrition, barring future discoveries. My generation got a ton of milk and meat, but earlier generations did not. The average height for men has not changed much since I was young. I think the height of top athletes is more skewed by the increase in population. With so many tall people now, it is more likely to find exceptionally talented tall athletes.
 

hoodjem

G.O.A.T.
This is pretty standard:


  • artist
    noun
    • 1A person who creates paintings or drawings as a profession or hobby.
    1. 1.1 A person who practises or performs any of the creative arts, such as a sculptor, film-maker, actor, or dancer.
  • 1.2 A person skilled at a particular task or occupation.
    ‘a surgeon who is an artist with the scalpel’

  • 2informal with modifier A person who habitually practises a specified reprehensible activity.

    ‘rip-off artists’
This is not sarcasm: Is English not your first language?
No, English is my first language. But I am very particular about its use, having practiced it at university-level for the same 33 years in the writing of articles and books, and the grading of undergraduate research papers.
I reject this use of the word:
1.2 A person skilled at a particular task or occupation.
‘a surgeon who is an artist with the scalpel’

That person may be a skilled practitioner, or even rise to the level of a crafts person, but is not an artist.

(Sorry, this is not the place for a debate on aesthetics. The word artist gets thrown around way too loosely and much in modern culture, in my opinion. Rembrandt, Michelangelo, and Beethoven were artists. Lady Gaga and Jay Z are not; they are performers. A highly skilled car mechanic, bricklayer, pizza-maker, or surgeon is a practitioner or skilled craftsman or craftswoman. But that is just my opinion.)
 
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Limpinhitter

G.O.A.T.
No, English is my first language. But I am very particular about its use, having practiced it at university-level for the same 33 years in the writing of articles and books, and the grading of undergraduate research papers.
I reject this use of the word:
1.2 A person skilled at a particular task or occupation.
‘a surgeon who is an artist with the scalpel’

That person may be a skilled practitioner, or even rise to the level of a crafts person, but is not an artist.

(Sorry, this is not the place for a debate on aesthetics. The word artist gets thrown around way too loosely and much in modern culture, in my opinion. Rembrandt, Michelangelo, and Beethoven were artists. Lady Gaga and Jay Z are not; they are performers. A highly skilled car mechanic, bricklayer, pizza-maker, or surgeon is a practitioner or skilled craftsman or craftswoman. But that is just my opinion.)

I don't know enough about Jay Z, but, I disagree with you about Lady Gaga. I don't think it is necessary to be among the greatest in history to be an artist.
 

hoodjem

G.O.A.T.
I don't know enough about Jay Z, but, I disagree with you about Lady Gaga. I don't think it is necessary to be among the greatest in history to be an artist.
That’s okay. Could be.
Perhaps American universities’ art departments are filled with many young artists.

(Sometimes I disagree with myself, about certain issues. :))
 
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Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
No, English is my first language. But I am very particular about its use, having practiced it at university-level for the same 33 years in the writing of articles and books, and the grading of undergraduate research papers.
I reject this use of the word:
1.2 A person skilled at a particular task or occupation.
‘a surgeon who is an artist with the scalpel’

That person may be a skilled practitioner, or even rise to the level of a crafts person, but is not an artist.

(Sorry, this is not the place for a debate on aesthetics. The word artist gets thrown around way too loosely and much in modern culture, in my opinion. Rembrandt, Michelangelo, and Beethoven were artists. Lady Gaga and Jay Z are not; they are performers. A highly skilled car mechanic, bricklayer, pizza-maker, or surgeon is a practitioner or skilled craftsman or craftswoman. But that is just my opinion.)
I'll only say that the moment you give yourself the position of "guardian of the English language", giving the nod to one commonly accepted definition and thumbs down to another, you have to accept that any number of other people will assume the same right.

This puts you in the "prescriptivist" camp. ;)
 

hoodjem

G.O.A.T.
I'll only say that the moment you give yourself the position of "guardian of the English language", giving the nod to one commonly accepted definition and thumbs down to another, you have to accept that any number of other people will assume the same right.

This puts you in the "prescriptivist" camp. ;)
Yep, that was my position for 33 years: “Guardian of the Univer . . . English language.”
Standing at the gates of civilization, facing the barbarian undergrad hordes who wanted to throw “like” into every sentence and formulate incoherent ideas in incomplete ones.

Subject—who needs it; verb—does not exist. But of course I knew what they meant, because they told me so: “know what I mean.”

I was implacable and merciless.

I believe that definitions are useful. They help us to categorize, comprehend, and communicate fairly logically and more clearly. So yes, maybe I am in the prescriptivist camp. (See my discussions of Grand Slam. ;) Fed has 19 grand slams, and Laver has only two. Fed is thus so much greater.)

I’ll take the OED over UDC any day. :oops:
 

Gary Duane

G.O.A.T.
Yep, that was my position for 33 years: “Guardian of the Univer . . . English language.”
Standing at the gates of civilization, facing the barbarian undergrad hordes who wanted to throw “like” into every sentence and formulate incoherent ideas in incomplete ones.

Subject—who needs it; verb—does not exist. But of course I knew what they meant, because they told me so: “know what I mean.”

I was implacable and merciless.

I believe that definitions are useful. They help us to categorize, comprehend, and communicate fairly logically and more clearly. So yes, maybe I am in the prescriptivist camp. (See my discussions of Grand Slam. ;) Fed has 19 grand slams, and Laver has only two. Fed is thus so much greater.)

I’ll take the OED over UDC any day. :oops:
Well, you just said that Fed has 19 "grand slams". A tennis presciptivist would take issue with that, or even if you said 19 slams. ;)

Know what I mean? :D

What bothers me the most is the total lack of speaking ability that I hear on TV.

You know, ah, uh, I mean, I I I I I, but but but but but, and off it goes. Sometimes I enjoy listening to people I don't like at all, just because they speak the language well!

But "just between you and I" I don't worry much about grammar/usage. The battle has already been lost.
 

hoodjem

G.O.A.T.
:)When I was younger I used to watch Firing Line hosted by William F. Buckley Jr. very often.

I disagreed with almost everything he had to say, in terms of content and political position. But his logic, erudition, and command of English were a wonder to witness.
 

Waspsting

Hall of Fame
Summing up our discussion to now, there are two broad schools of thought -

a) Laver #1 for the year, based on consistent good results throughout the year

b) Newcombe or Rosewall #1 for the year, based primarily on their titles at the Big 2 Slams

---

Can we further dissect school of thought b) - Newcombe vs Rosewall. If one has to be #1, who would you choose? And why?

In the context of the period in question and what sense I can make of it, I'm inclined towards John Newcombe

I imagine the ATP Player of the Year (started in 1975) and ITF World Champion (started in 1978) are a reasonable substitute for whatever intuitive criteria was used to rank Newcombe/Rosewall #1 in 1970

Without exception, both awards went to the Wimbledon champion until 1985, as often as not contradicting the computer rankings

The ITF award was chosen by a 3-man panel - Fred Perry, Don Budge and Lew Hoad - upto 1984 and it's implied on wikipedia that all their decisions, sans 1983, were unanimous

To me, the players opinion is the Gold Standard in the matter - far, far more important than the experts. How can it not be? - It's the horses mouth. And messrs Perry, Budge and Hoad make for quite a horse

Note also that Bjorn Borg, who never won the US Open, was clearly considered a GOAT candidate.... but the absence of a Wimbledon crown was commonly used - and to some extent, still is - as a humongous point against players with an otherwise equally impressive resume of accomplishments (Rosewall and Ivan Lendl)

The implication is that the common perception was Wimbledon >> US Open, just as Wimbledon/US Open >>>> everything else

Hence, it seems to me a logical extension of Newcombe/Rosewall > Laver in 1970 on the grounds of USO/Wimbledon >>>> everything else is -

Newcombe > Rosewall in 1970 on the grounds of Wimbledon >> USO

I'd like to hear what others make of the matter
 

treblings

Hall of Fame
Summing up our discussion to now, there are two broad schools of thought -

a) Laver #1 for the year, based on consistent good results throughout the year

b) Newcombe or Rosewall #1 for the year, based primarily on their titles at the Big 2 Slams

---

Can we further dissect school of thought b) - Newcombe vs Rosewall. If one has to be #1, who would you choose? And why?

In the context of the period in question and what sense I can make of it, I'm inclined towards John Newcombe

I imagine the ATP Player of the Year (started in 1975) and ITF World Champion (started in 1978) are a reasonable substitute for whatever intuitive criteria was used to rank Newcombe/Rosewall #1 in 1970

Without exception, both awards went to the Wimbledon champion until 1985, as often as not contradicting the computer rankings

The ITF award was chosen by a 3-man panel - Fred Perry, Don Budge and Lew Hoad - upto 1984 and it's implied on wikipedia that all their decisions, sans 1983, were unanimous

To me, the players opinion is the Gold Standard in the matter - far, far more important than the experts. How can it not be? - It's the horses mouth. And messrs Perry, Budge and Hoad make for quite a horse

Note also that Bjorn Borg, who never won the US Open, was clearly considered a GOAT candidate.... but the absence of a Wimbledon crown was commonly used - and to some extent, still is - as a humongous point against players with an otherwise equally impressive resume of accomplishments (Rosewall and Ivan Lendl)

The implication is that the common perception was Wimbledon >> US Open, just as Wimbledon/US Open >>>> everything else

Hence, it seems to me a logical extension of Newcombe/Rosewall > Laver in 1970 on the grounds of USO/Wimbledon >>>> everything else is -

Newcombe > Rosewall in 1970 on the grounds of Wimbledon >> USO

I'd like to hear what others make of the matter

it would be interesting to hear the opinion of Budge, Perry and Hoad on 1970:)

in Europe, i dare say, Wimbledon was considered just a little bit more important than the US Open.
maybe it was different in the US?

do we know the current panel who decided 2017?
 

BobbyOne

G.O.A.T.
Summing up our discussion to now, there are two broad schools of thought -

a) Laver #1 for the year, based on consistent good results throughout the year

b) Newcombe or Rosewall #1 for the year, based primarily on their titles at the Big 2 Slams

---

Can we further dissect school of thought b) - Newcombe vs Rosewall. If one has to be #1, who would you choose? And why?

In the context of the period in question and what sense I can make of it, I'm inclined towards John Newcombe

I imagine the ATP Player of the Year (started in 1975) and ITF World Champion (started in 1978) are a reasonable substitute for whatever intuitive criteria was used to rank Newcombe/Rosewall #1 in 1970

Without exception, both awards went to the Wimbledon champion until 1985, as often as not contradicting the computer rankings

The ITF award was chosen by a 3-man panel - Fred Perry, Don Budge and Lew Hoad - upto 1984 and it's implied on wikipedia that all their decisions, sans 1983, were unanimous

To me, the players opinion is the Gold Standard in the matter - far, far more important than the experts. How can it not be? - It's the horses mouth. And messrs Perry, Budge and Hoad make for quite a horse

Note also that Bjorn Borg, who never won the US Open, was clearly considered a GOAT candidate.... but the absence of a Wimbledon crown was commonly used - and to some extent, still is - as a humongous point against players with an otherwise equally impressive resume of accomplishments (Rosewall and Ivan Lendl)

The implication is that the common perception was Wimbledon >> US Open, just as Wimbledon/US Open >>>> everything else

Hence, it seems to me a logical extension of Newcombe/Rosewall > Laver in 1970 on the grounds of USO/Wimbledon >>>> everything else is -

Newcombe > Rosewall in 1970 on the grounds of Wimbledon >> USO

I'd like to hear what others make of the matter

Rosewall leads Newcombe in most categories (hth etc).
 

thrust

Legend
Summing up our discussion to now, there are two broad schools of thought -

a) Laver #1 for the year, based on consistent good results throughout the year

b) Newcombe or Rosewall #1 for the year, based primarily on their titles at the Big 2 Slams

---

Can we further dissect school of thought b) - Newcombe vs Rosewall. If one has to be #1, who would you choose? And why?

In the context of the period in question and what sense I can make of it, I'm inclined towards John Newcombe

I imagine the ATP Player of the Year (started in 1975) and ITF World Champion (started in 1978) are a reasonable substitute for whatever intuitive criteria was used to rank Newcombe/Rosewall #1 in 1970

Without exception, both awards went to the Wimbledon champion until 1985, as often as not contradicting the computer rankings

The ITF award was chosen by a 3-man panel - Fred Perry, Don Budge and Lew Hoad - upto 1984 and it's implied on wikipedia that all their decisions, sans 1983, were unanimous

To me, the players opinion is the Gold Standard in the matter - far, far more important than the experts. How can it not be? - It's the horses mouth. And messrs Perry, Budge and Hoad make for quite a horse

Note also that Bjorn Borg, who never won the US Open, was clearly considered a GOAT candidate.... but the absence of a Wimbledon crown was commonly used - and to some extent, still is - as a humongous point against players with an otherwise equally impressive resume of accomplishments (Rosewall and Ivan Lendl)

The implication is that the common perception was Wimbledon >> US Open, just as Wimbledon/US Open >>>> everything else

Hence, it seems to me a logical extension of Newcombe/Rosewall > Laver in 1970 on the grounds of USO/Wimbledon >>>> everything else is -

Newcombe > Rosewall in 1970 on the grounds of Wimbledon >> USO

I'd like to hear what others make of the matter
Newcombe beat Ken in the Wimbledon finals, Ken beat John in the USO semi's. Ken beat John, I think 4 of the 5 times they played in 70. Ken also had a much better winning record against the top 10 that year. The USO had the same competition as Wimbledon, therefore, Rosewall definitely had the superior results for 1970 an should have been ranked higher than John.
 

BobbyOne

G.O.A.T.
Newcombe beat Ken in the Wimbledon finals, Ken beat John in the USO semi's. Ken beat John, I think 4 of the 5 times they played in 70. Ken also had a much better winning record against the top 10 that year. The USO had the same competition as Wimbledon, therefore, Rosewall definitely had the superior results for 1970 an should have been ranked higher than John.

thrust, They were 5:2 that year. Rosewall was also better in the GP rankings, finished third at the Masters and reached final in the TCC.
 

thrust

Legend
thrust, They were 5:2 that year. Rosewall was also better in the GP rankings, finished third at the Masters and reached final in the TCC.
All of which makes it more absurd that Tingay ranked Newcombe #1 just because he won Wimbledon, which was no more competitive than the USO. Did Mr Tingay's tennis season consist of only Wimbledon?
 

Limpinhitter

G.O.A.T.
Newcombe beat Ken in the Wimbledon finals, Ken beat John in the USO semi's. Ken beat John, I think 4 of the 5 times they played in 70. Ken also had a much better winning record against the top 10 that year. The USO had the same competition as Wimbledon, therefore, Rosewall definitely had the superior results for 1970 an should have been ranked higher than John.

Agreed. Rosewall finished ahead of Newcombe in 1970. Newcomb won the more prestigious major. But, Rosewall won the second most prestigious traditional major, and won five more titles. Newcombe only won two more titles. Plus, Rosewall had the winning head to head record against Newcomb that year.
 

Dan Lobb

G.O.A.T.
Agreed. Rosewall finished ahead of Newcombe in 1970. Newcomb won the more prestigious major. But, Rosewall won the second most prestigious traditional major, and won five more titles. Newcombe only won two more titles. Plus, Rosewall had the winning head to head record against Newcomb that year.
You have to bring your best game to the top event.
Otherwise, all you get is a pat on the back for a job well done.
 

BobbyOne

G.O.A.T.
You have to bring your best game to the top event.
Otherwise, all you get is a pat on the back for a job well done.

Thanks, Dan. I do know that there is no poster here more admiring Muscles than you are doing. I especially like your objectivity and your superb logic.

You have done your job ( posting convincing comments) very well. It's a pity I cannot pat friendly on your shoulder. If you only could come to Vienna one day that I could give you my great Thank You for all your many praising posts about the Little Master...
 

Waspsting

Hall of Fame
in Europe, i dare say, Wimbledon was considered just a little bit more important than the US Open.
maybe it was different in the US?

I had rather formed the impression that the gap was wider than "just a little bit". See -

1) Rosewall and Lendl's reputations (how strongly not having Wimbledon title held against them)... and compare to Borg, (how not particularly strongly missing US title held against him)

2) Connors' 5 US titles not seeming to carry the weight of Borg's 5 Wimbledons (in old articles I've seen, not all that much is made of the 6 Frenches, that's something we savour now. The old articles usually just talk about the "X time Wimbledon champion" when celebrating Borg). And of course, Connors won a couple of Wimbys too, while Borg won no US

If Wimbledon was considered only "just a little bit" more important than US Open, there would be no justification for either of the above

These ATP and ITF awards also seem to indicate Wimbledon significantly more valued than US Open

Borg - the Wimbledon champion - won in both in 1976 and 1977

In 1976, he won Wimbledon and was runner-up at USO. Connors won US Open and was out early at Wimbledon but far and away outstripped Borg in other tournaments as well as swept him 3-0 head-to-head

In 1977, Borg won Wimbledon and was out early at USO. Vilas meanwhile, won USO, the French and was runner-up at Australian Open (the rest of the year is about the same for both players)

Unless Wimbledon >> US Open, at least one of the above would be strange

What I'm deducing from the pattern of the awards - the Wimbledon champion winning every year until 1985 - is that the thinking of the time was along the lines laid out by @Dan Lobb -

You have to bring your best game to the top event.
Otherwise, all you get is a pat on the back for a job well done.

Whether that was the same mentality in 1970, I don't know.

Going by the trend of Wimbledon's status going down, as the other majors and non-Slam events going up... I would speculate that if anything, it was even more true in 1970 than during Borg's Wimbledon ruling days 5-6 years later
---

In 1985, the pattern for the award winners changed. Since then, they've almost invariably gone with the World #1... Wimbledon's special status as a de facto "World Championship" event seems to have changed round about then

In 1990 Stefan Edberg was both #1 and the Wimbledon champion... but the award controversially went to Lendl (I suspect there's a healthy amount of dirty pool behind this, though)


do we know the current panel who decided 2017?

I don't know

Doesn't matter much these days though... World Rankings is all they seem to look at. Just one non-World #1 winning an award since 1990 (Djokovic 2013, ahead of Nadal)

All of which makes it more absurd that Tingay ranked Newcombe #1 just because he won Wimbledon, which was no more competitive than the USO. Did Mr Tingay's tennis season consist of only Wimbledon?

thrust, I don't know how much of this thread you've gone through... but we've been down this road backwards, forwards and inside-out

It leads to Laver #1 (everything counts) vs Newcombe/Rosewall #1 (Wimbledon, US Open counts way, way more than anything else)

I have no further interest in that particular discussion - I know what everyone thinks and what they'll say - its a dead horse.

If your curious, feel free to go over the last 20 pages

All I'd like to do is look at what kind of values people had at the time, and try to find a #1 based on those values, with respect to the values of the time

 
Last edited:

Limpinhitter

G.O.A.T.
Summing up our discussion to now, there are two broad schools of thought -

a) Laver #1 for the year, based on consistent good results throughout the year

b) Newcombe or Rosewall #1 for the year, based primarily on their titles at the Big 2 Slams

---

Can we further dissect school of thought b) - Newcombe vs Rosewall. If one has to be #1, who would you choose? And why?

In the context of the period in question and what sense I can make of it, I'm inclined towards John Newcombe

I imagine the ATP Player of the Year (started in 1975) and ITF World Champion (started in 1978) are a reasonable substitute for whatever intuitive criteria was used to rank Newcombe/Rosewall #1 in 1970

Without exception, both awards went to the Wimbledon champion until 1985, as often as not contradicting the computer rankings

The ITF award was chosen by a 3-man panel - Fred Perry, Don Budge and Lew Hoad - upto 1984 and it's implied on wikipedia that all their decisions, sans 1983, were unanimous

To me, the players opinion is the Gold Standard in the matter - far, far more important than the experts. How can it not be? - It's the horses mouth. And messrs Perry, Budge and Hoad make for quite a horse

Note also that Bjorn Borg, who never won the US Open, was clearly considered a GOAT candidate.... but the absence of a Wimbledon crown was commonly used - and to some extent, still is - as a humongous point against players with an otherwise equally impressive resume of accomplishments (Rosewall and Ivan Lendl)

The implication is that the common perception was Wimbledon >> US Open, just as Wimbledon/US Open >>>> everything else

Hence, it seems to me a logical extension of Newcombe/Rosewall > Laver in 1970 on the grounds of USO/Wimbledon >>>> everything else is -

Newcombe > Rosewall in 1970 on the grounds of Wimbledon >> USO

I'd like to hear what others make of the matter

If you attribute the current ATP point allocation system to Laver's, Rosewall's and Newcombe's wins for 1970, Laver was #1 by a large margin. He would have more than twice as many points as Rosewall and Newcombe - about 12,000 to 5,000, more or less. Newcombe himself has said that Laver was #1 in 1970.
 

BobbyOne

G.O.A.T.
I had rather formed the impression that the gap was wider than "just a little bit". See -

1) Rosewall and Lendl's reputations (how strongly not having Wimbledon title held against them)... and compare to Borg, (how not particularly strongly missing US title held against him)

2) Connors' 5 US titles not seeming to carry the weight of Borg's 5 Wimbledons (in old articles I've seen, not all that much is made of the 6 Frenches, that's something we savour now. The old articles usually just talk about the "X time Wimbledon champion" when celebrating Borg). And of course, Connors won a couple of Wimbys too, while Borg won no US

If Wimbledon was considered only "just a little bit" more important than US Open, there would be no justification for either of the above

These ATP and ITF awards also seem to indicate Wimbledon significantly more valued than US Open

Borg - the Wimbledon champion - won in both in 1976 and 1977

In 1976, he won Wimbledon and was runner-up at USO. Connors won US Open and was out early at Wimbledon but far and away outstripped Borg in other tournaments as well as swept him 3-0 head-to-head

In 1977, Borg won Wimbledon and was out early at USO. Vilas meanwhile, won USO, the French and was runner-up at Australian Open (the rest of the year is about the same for both players)

Unless Wimbledon >> US Open, at least one of the above would be strange

What I'm deducing from the pattern of the awards - the Wimbledon champion winning every year until 1985 - is that the thinking of the time was along the lines laid out by @Dan Lobb -



Whether that was the same mentality in 1970, I don't know.

Going by the trend of Wimbledon's status going down, as the other majors and non-Slam events going up... I would speculate that if anything, it was even more true in 1970 than during Borg's Wimbledon ruling days 5-6 years later
---

In 1985, the pattern for the award winners changed. Since then, they've almost invariably gone with the World #1... Wimbledon's special status as a de facto "World Championship" event seems to have changed round about then

In 1990 Stefan Edberg was both #1 and the Wimbledon champion... but the award controversially went to Lendl (I suspect there's a healthy amount of dirty pool behind this, though)




I don't know

Doesn't matter much these days though... World Rankings is all they seem to look at. Just one non-World #1 winning an award since 1990 (Djokovic 2013, ahead of Nadal)



thrust, I don't know how much of this thread you've gone through... but we've been down this road backwards, forwards and inside-out

It leads to Laver #1 (everything counts) vs Newcombe/Rosewall #1 (Wimbledon, US Open counts way, way more than anything else)

I have no further interest in that particular discussion - I know what everyone thinks and what they'll say - its a dead horse.

If your curious, feel free to go over the last 20 pages

All I'd like to do is look at what kind of values people had at the time, and try to find a #1 based on those values, with respect to the values of the time

Waspsting, thrust did NOT raise the Laver vs. Newcombe/Rosewall issue. He just stated that Rosewall had the better record than Newcombe in 1970.
 

KG1965

Legend
I had rather formed the impression that the gap was wider than "just a little bit". See -

1) Rosewall and Lendl's reputations (how strongly not having Wimbledon title held against them)... and compare to Borg, (how not particularly strongly missing US title held against him)

2) Connors' 5 US titles not seeming to carry the weight of Borg's 5 Wimbledons (in old articles I've seen, not all that much is made of the 6 Frenches, that's something we savour now. The old articles usually just talk about the "X time Wimbledon champion" when celebrating Borg). And of course, Connors won a couple of Wimbys too, while Borg won no US

If Wimbledon was considered only "just a little bit" more important than US Open, there would be no justification for either of the above

These ATP and ITF awards also seem to indicate Wimbledon significantly more valued than US Open

Borg - the Wimbledon champion - won in both in 1976 and 1977

In 1976, he won Wimbledon and was runner-up at USO. Connors won US Open and was out early at Wimbledon but far and away outstripped Borg in other tournaments as well as swept him 3-0 head-to-head

In 1977, Borg won Wimbledon and was out early at USO. Vilas meanwhile, won USO, the French and was runner-up at Australian Open (the rest of the year is about the same for both players)

Unless Wimbledon >> US Open, at least one of the above would be strange

What I'm deducing from the pattern of the awards - the Wimbledon champion winning every year until 1985 - is that the thinking of the time was along the lines laid out by @Dan Lobb -



Whether that was the same mentality in 1970, I don't know.

Going by the trend of Wimbledon's status going down, as the other majors and non-Slam events going up... I would speculate that if anything, it was even more true in 1970 than during Borg's Wimbledon ruling days 5-6 years later
---

In 1985, the pattern for the award winners changed. Since then, they've almost invariably gone with the World #1... Wimbledon's special status as a de facto "World Championship" event seems to have changed round about then

In 1990 Stefan Edberg was both #1 and the Wimbledon champion... but the award controversially went to Lendl (I suspect there's a healthy amount of dirty pool behind this, though)




I don't know

Doesn't matter much these days though... World Rankings is all they seem to look at. Just one non-World #1 winning an award since 1990 (Djokovic 2013, ahead of Nadal)



thrust, I don't know how much of this thread you've gone through... but we've been down this road backwards, forwards and inside-out

It leads to Laver #1 (everything counts) vs Newcombe/Rosewall #1 (Wimbledon, US Open counts way, way more than anything else)

I have no further interest in that particular discussion - I know what everyone thinks and what they'll say - its a dead horse.

If your curious, feel free to go over the last 20 pages

All I'd like to do is look at what kind of values people had at the time, and try to find a #1 based on those values, with respect to the values of the time
I think there are many schools of thought to attribute the number 1 in those years, the two primaries are:
1) who wins Wimbledon
2) who is the strongest (which is almost always identified with who is the best in the whole circuit)
Therefore, if you take the road leading to the school 1) Newcombe > Rosewall> ........> .........> .......... >>>>>>> Laver.

But if you ask the question to KG ("If one must be number 1, who would you choose?") I answer you… “I do not care if Newk 70 or Rosewall 70 is better”, because I would never reason as "only Wimbly", and why I chose the number 2 .... I'm not sure that the number 2 was Ken or Newk ...

1968-1978
in Europe: Wimbledon >>>>>> RG, Rome, USO
in USA: Wimbledon >> USE >>>>>> others big titles

so Wimbledon dominated the world. Wimbledon was the Event. USO was the second (but not in Europe).

Borg chapter
Bjorn Borg, who never won the US Open, was clearly considered a GOAT candidate .... but he was 100% in 1981 GOAT if he won USO.
USO had a high value and in fact, after his retirement no longer spoke of Borg GOAT but of Laver GOAT .. then also McEnroe
(a short season) and Sampras.
The fail of Wimbledon penalizes more Rosewall and Ivan Lendl but it is not the basic reason in the comparison with Borg.
Rosewall won > Lendl and >> Borg but Borg was commonly stronger than the two. It's an unequal comparison.
The 5 USO titles of Connors haven’t the weight of the 5 Wimbledon of Borg because they are in a row, .. even if with time it is understood that the 5 USO are on three surfaces.


Your impressions are all good to me, only the Borg v Rosewall / Lendl comparison is not related to the British tournament alone.

You're right to say that the lines drawn by @ Dan Lobb are those that lead to the road that arrives at the number one school of thought.:) ...
Dan Lobb version, if I have not misunderstood, about the number one is the tennis player who wins the top event in the year, not necessarily Wimbledon.
 
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Dan Lobb

G.O.A.T.
If you attribute the current ATP point allocation system to Laver's, Rosewall's and Newcombe's wins for 1970, Laver was #1 by a large margin. He would have more than twice as many points as Rosewall and Newcombe - about 12,000 to 5,000, more or less. Newcombe himself has said that Laver was #1 in 1970.
My interest for each year....#1...who won Wimbledon? (exception: 1973)

Pre-Open era....who won the top event?
 

KG1965

Legend
My interest for each year....#1...who won Wimbledon? (exception: 1973)

Pre-Open era....who won the top event?
Dan Lobb, I think I understand your thinking about who is the number one of the year but .. I ask you:
why you are not interested to the 2° top event or 3 °.
Do you follow and watch only Wimbledon (since 1968) during the year?
 

KG1965

Legend
All I'd like to do is look at what kind of values people had at the time, and try to find a #1 based on those values, with respect to the values of the time
I think I understand what you're looking for but there's an problem, IMHO.
The problem is this: Waspsting, you write "number one" but the "number one" in 1970 can not exist. The "number one" of the world exists only if there is a calculation system (a ranking), in fact it exists since 1973. Or it can be "number one" but limited to WCT Tour Laver in 1971 and 1972, but only in WCT, not "number one" of the world.

Critics, the media, the old champions can not decree who the "number one" was, but only who was the strongest / greatest / best for them.

Bud Collins will be able to write in a newspaper who was the strongest, can say in an interview who was the best, will explain that the biggest is Newcombe because he won at Wimbledon, but can not explain who was the "number one".

I could be wrong but nobody in those years spoke of "number one", but simply of the stronger or better or bigger.
The "number one" presupposes .... numbers.

Paradoxically, Laver was not "number one" in 1969.

Even today, the number one is the one that commands ATP Ranking.
Federer will be able to win the prizes he deserves, he was the best, the strongest, but "number one" was Nadal, not Sports Illustrated, Equipe or ITF. Nadal is the "number one".

Even if you analyze the previous clumsy years, Ashe was the strongest in 1975 but not the number one, Vilas was the most successful in 77 but not the number one, Borg in 1978 was huge but not number one, Connors was mythical in 1982 but not number one.
The 4 will have won ITF awards, major newspapers, etc. but they were not numbers one.

A newspaper, 10 critics, and even ITF can't decide who is the number one.
They can decide who was the best, this yes.

Without ranking it's all subjective.
With the ranking there is something objective, maybe wrong. It is therefore necessary to reason on the wrong parts of the "objective".
But everything that is "subjective" risks derailing.
 
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Limpinhitter

G.O.A.T.
My interest for each year....#1...who won Wimbledon? (exception: 1973)

Pre-Open era....who won the top event?

In my view, the TCC was possibly the top event in 70' and clearly the top event in 71'. Even those titles don't secure the YE #1 ranking. If the top event determined YE rankings, then the remainder of the tour would be rendered meaningless surplusage.
 

BobbyOne

G.O.A.T.
I think I understand what you're looking for but there's an problem, IMHO.
The problem is this: Waspsting, you write "number one" but the "number one" in 1970 can not exist. The "number one" of the world exists only if there is a calculation system (a ranking), in fact it exists since 1973. Or it can be "number one" but limited to WCT Tour Laver in 1971 and 1972, but only in WCT, not "number one" of the world.

Critics, the media, the old champions can not decree who the "number one" was, but only who was the strongest / greatest / best for them.

Bud Collins will be able to write in a newspaper who was the strongest, can say in an interview who was the best, will explain that the biggest is Newcombe because he won at Wimbledon, but can not explain who was the "number one".

I could be wrong but nobody in those years spoke of "number one", but simply of the stronger or better or bigger.
The "number one" presupposes .... numbers.

Paradoxically, Laver was not "number one" in 1969.

Even today, the number one is the one that commands ATP Ranking.
Federer will be able to win the prizes he deserves, he was the best, the strongest, but "number one" was Nadal, not Sports Illustrated, Equipe or ITF. Nadal is the "number one".

Even if you analyze the previous clumsy years, Ashe was the strongest in 1975 but not the number one, Vilas was the most successful in 77 but not the number one, Borg in 1978 was huge but not number one, Connors was mythical in 1982 but not number one.
The 4 will have won ITF awards, major newspapers, etc. but they were not numbers one.

A newspaper, 10 critics, and even ITF can't decide who is the number one.
They can decide who was the best, this yes.

Without ranking it's all subjective.
With the ranking there is something objective, maybe wrong. It is therefore necessary to reason on the wrong parts of the "objective".
But everything that is "subjective" risks derailing.

KG, There was a No.1 (at the male players) since a very long time, at least since 1913!
 
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BobbyOne

G.O.A.T.
In my view, the TCC was possibly the top event in 70' and clearly the top event in 71'. Even those titles don't secure the YE #1 ranking. If the top event determined YE rankings, then the remainder of the tour would be rendered meaningless surplusage.

Good joke regarding TCC!
 
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