I fully realize that the # of poll options is limited but I have a problem with lumping Chinese languages (Mandarin, Yue/Cantonse, Wu & others) with Japanese and Korean. Japanese & Korean, maybe ok. Many linguists believe that they may have shared a common proto-language precursor. While quite different from each other, they appear, to my uneducated ear, to be more similar to each other than to Chinese languages -- and very, very different from Chinese languages.
Sure, Japanese has borrowed some Kanji characters (1000+) from the Chinese written language but their other character sets are quite different -- and their spoken languages are extremely different. Korean characters may very well have been influenced by Chinese characters and/or Japanese characters but, again, are quite different. Anyone know more about this?
I am aware that the words for "three" and "four" in Japanese and Chinese languages share a common history. Can't say who "invented" these words but, somewhere along the line, one culture borrowed these words from the other. The was a time -- long, long ago -- when many early languages had words for "one" and "two". But after that, it was "many" -- regardless of how much greater than 2. There may very well be a tribe or two on the African continent and elsewhere that still uses this basic counting system: 1, 2, many.
I suppose it makes sense to lump Portagee and Spanish together. At one time, they may have primarily been dialect differences. Are they that much different than that now? Forgive my ignorance on this. And or course, they are both derived from Latin. As are French and Italian. While those 2 sound different, i can see the rationale behind lumping them together -- separate from Spanish & Portagee. Romanian could also probably be lumped in with Italian (and French) even tho it has some other influences.
Time to resurrect Esperanto?
.